The nurse should complete the prescription to administer furosemide 20 mg intravenous push (IVP) first. Thus, option (d) is correct.
Furosemide should be administered as soon as possible because it directly treats the client's current situation. Myocardial infarction can result in heart failure, which can lead to fluid buildup in the lungs and audible crackles when the lungs are auscultated. A loop diuretic called furosemide encourages diuresis by preventing the reabsorption of water and sodium in the renal tubules. It aids in improving respiratory health and reducing lung congestion by encouraging the excretion of extra fluid.
Although crucial measures like taking blood for arterial blood gases, wrapping legs in compression hose, and putting an indwelling catheter to monitor hourly urine output, they don't deal with the immediate problem of pulmonary congestion. Furosemide should therefore be given to the client in order to reduce their symptoms and stop any additional issues.
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Why do plasma potassium levels fall whist sodium levels increase in response to aldosterone? (20 marks).
Answer:
Aldosterone affects the body's ability to regulate blood pressure. It sends the signal to organs, like the kidney and colon, that can increase the amount of sodium the body sends into the bloodstream or the amount of potassium released in the urine.
Explanation:
Which medical condition occurs when you have HIV and TB
Answer:
HIV/TB Coinfection.
Explanation:
Infection with both HIV and TB is called HIV/TB coinfection. Untreated latent TB infection is more likely to advance to TB disease in people with HIV than in people without HIV. In people with HIV, TB disease is considered an AIDS-defining condition. AIDS-defining conditions are infections and cancers that are life-threatening in people with HIV.
Answer:
HIV weakens the immune system, increasing the risk of TB in people with HIV. Infection with both HIV and TB is called HIV/TB coinfection and Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body's ability to fight infection and disease.
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT true of anesthetics?
a.) Their categories are local and general.
b.) Local anesthetics are more common in ambulatory care setting.
c.) Patient teaching with local anesthetics should include the avoidance of activities that may cause trauma until the anesthetic's effects have disappeared.
d.) Patients who will receive general anesthesia may be given medications beforehand to reduce anxiety, produce amnesia, and relieve pain.
e.) Allied health professionals in an ambulatory care setting have no responsibility in preparing a patient for general anesthesia; this is the responsibility of the surgeon and anesthetist
The statement that is NOT true of anesthetics is e) Allied health professionals in an ambulatory care setting have no responsibility in preparing a patient for general anesthesia.
In an ambulatory care setting, such as a surgical center or outpatient clinic, allied health professionals, including nurses, anesthesiologist assistants, and nurse anesthetists, have important roles in preparing patients for general anesthesia. They work closely with the surgeon and anesthetist to ensure that the patient is properly prepared and ready for the anesthesia procedure.
Allied health professionals may be involved in tasks such as obtaining the patient's medical history, conducting preoperative assessments, explaining the anesthesia process to the patient, obtaining consent, ensuring necessary preoperative tests are completed, administering preoperative medications, and monitoring the patient's vital signs before, during, and after anesthesia.
Collaboration between different healthcare professionals is crucial in providing safe and effective anesthesia care in an ambulatory setting. Each member of the healthcare team has specific responsibilities and contributes to the overall care and well-being of the patient.
Therefore, e) Allied health professionals in an ambulatory care setting have no responsibility in preparing a patient for general anesthesia is correct option.
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why are most people allergic to pollen????????????????????????? and why do we sneeze and etc.
Answer:
Our body system thinks it's dangerous and it thinks it's a foreign invader. So when we sneeze it release antibodies to get rid of the pollon. most of us are allergic to pollen create a chemical called histamine, which causes the sneezing and stuff.
Hope this helps and PLEASE give brainlist!
Some people are allergic to pollen because pollen reacts with our nose cells and forces us to sneeze. This may also cause rashes near our nose.
What can you co-administer with probenecid to dec nephrotoxicity?
Probenecid is a medication that is commonly used in combination with certain antibiotics to enhance their effectiveness and reduce the risk of nephrotoxicity.
What medications can be co-administered to reduce the risk of nephrotoxicity?Probenecid is a medication that is used to treat gout and works by increasing the elimination of uric acid from the body. It is also sometimes used as an adjunct therapy to enhance the effectiveness of certain antibiotics by reducing their elimination from the body.
However, some antibiotics can be nephrotoxic (toxic to the kidneys) and co-administration with probenecid can be used to reduce the risk of this toxicity.
By inhibiting the secretion of penicillin into the renal tubules, probenecid can increase the concentration of penicillin in the bloodstream and prolong its therapeutic effect. This can help to reduce the dose of penicillin needed and reduce the risk of nephrotoxicity.
It is important to note that co-administration of probenecid with antibiotics or other medications should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider, as there can be potential drug interactions and contraindications.
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Selecting Supplement Pharmacy Technician Tasks
Note that the common tasks are listed toward the top and less common tasks are listed toward the bottom. According to O*NET, what are common supplement tasks performed pharmacy technicians? Check all that apply.
a. publishing pharmacy literature.
b. monitoring robotic dispensing machines.
c. assessing the purity of medications.
d. pricing merchandise and marking items for sale.
e. processing medical insurance claims forms.
f. evaluating the effectiveness of drugs.
Answer:
B. Monitoring robotic dispensing machines.
D. Pricing merchandise and marking items for sale.
E. Processing medical insurance claims forms.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
the answer is
B
D
e
i got it right
I need someone to help me write about a 250 essay about schumermann's kypohosis disease on medical  terminology
Which abbreviation represents a certified laboratory professional?
CCU
CLIA
MLS
RN
Answer:
CCU means Coronary Care Unit
CLIA means Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
MLS means Medical Laboratory Scientist
RN Registered Nurse
Out of all those options MLS is the answer.
which one of the following is not a feature of most patient web portals? A. Institute of Medicine B.Family Geneology C. Pharmacy
The correct answer is A. Institute of Medicine.
Most patient web portals do not include the Institute of Medicine as a feature. Patient web portals typically include features such as access to medical records, appointment scheduling, prescription refills, and communication with healthcare providers. The Institute of Medicine is a nonprofit organization that provides evidence-based research and recommendations for public health and healthcare policy, but it is not typically a feature of patient web portals.
Family genealogy may be included in a patient's medical records, and a pharmacy feature may allow for prescription refills and medication management. However, the Institute of Medicine is not a typical feature of patient web portals.
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the process of bone remodeling is known to be dependent on all of the fat-soluble vitamins exceptfour diff tocopherol compounds: alpha, beta, gamma and deltaalpha tocopherol: vit E activity in the bodymajor role: antioxidant
The process of bone remodeling is dependent on all of the fat-soluble vitamins except for four different tocopherol compounds: alpha, beta, gamma, and delta. The process of bone remodeling is a continuous cycle of bone resorption and formation that is crucial for maintaining bone strength and structure. It involves the removal of old bone tissue by specialized cells called osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone tissue by osteoblasts. This process is regulated by various factors, including hormones, growth factors, and vitamins.
Vitamins play an essential role in bone remodeling, particularly the fat-soluble vitamins, which are stored in the body's adipose tissue and liver. These vitamins include vitamins A, D, E, and K. However, the four different tocopherol compounds - alpha, beta, gamma, and delta - have no effect on bone remodeling.
Among the fat-soluble vitamins, vitamin D is the most critical for bone remodeling, as it regulates the absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for bone mineralization. Vitamin A plays a role in bone cell differentiation and mineralization, while vitamin K is involved in the activation of bone matrix proteins. Vitamin E, specifically alpha-tocopherol, has antioxidant properties that protect bone cells from oxidative stress, but it does not directly influence bone remodeling.
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Dr.Jasen and Dale, a veterinary assistant from Ashton Oak Equine Center are on a farm call to examine a Thoroughbred named “Roscoe”. The horse has been lethargic, weak after exercise, and had a decreased appetite for several days. The vet completes a PE and determines the horse has pale mucous membranes, a decreased HR and RR, is 5-10% dehydrated, appears weak and have lost some weight since the last exam. The vet is suspicious of parasites or an auto immune disease, since some of the signs appear to be anemia. Dr. Jansen explains to the owner that Jaimie causes a low blood cell count causing less oxygen to be transported to the tissues. Thus, the body is not producing enough blood cells. Upon completing the exam, Mark assists the vet in obtaining some blood samples and a fecal sample for further diagnosis. What are some possible causes for the anemia? What are some factors that could prevent the horse from having anemia? What treatment options might Dr.Jansen discuss with the owner?
Answer:
"Nonregenerative anemias include anemias caused by nutritional deficiencies in vitamins or minerals (such as iron), long-term disease, kidney disease"
"Supportive treatments, such as blood transfusions, may be indicated for severe cases to resolve equine anemia is supplementing with vitamins and minerals that are important to the process of red blood cell production."
Using approximately 250-300 words and APA 7th Edition citations and references as appropriate, give examples of three major zoonotic diseases and compare their modes of transmission. Using your own ideas, explain how transmission of these zoonotic diseases might be prevented.
Zoonotic diseases are infections that can be transmitted between animals and humans. This response provides examples of three major zoonotic diseases, namely Rabies, Lyme disease, and Avian Influenza, and compares their modes of transmission. It then discusses potential strategies for preventing the transmission of these diseases.
Rabies is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, commonly dogs, bats, raccoons, or foxes. The virus is present in the saliva of infected animals and can enter the human body through broken skin or mucous membranes.
Lyme disease is transmitted by the bite of infected black-legged ticks, commonly known as deer ticks. Ticks acquire the bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) by feeding on infected animals, such as mice or deer. Humans can get infected when bitten by an infected tick.
Avian Influenza, also known as bird flu, is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected birds or their droppings. In rare cases, the virus can be transmitted from birds to humans, causing severe respiratory illness. Human-to-human transmission is limited but can occur under certain circumstances.
Preventing the transmission of zoonotic diseases involves a multi-faceted approach:
Education and awareness: Promoting public education about the risks and preventive measures associated with zoonotic diseases, such as avoiding contact with wild or stray animals, practicing safe handling of pets, and proper tick avoidance techniques.
Vector control: Implementing measures to control disease-carrying vectors, such as ticks and mosquitoes, through the use of insecticides, habitat modification, and personal protective measures like wearing protective clothing and using insect repellents.
Vaccination: Vaccinating animals against zoonotic diseases, particularly pets and livestock, can help prevent their transmission to humans. Vaccination programs for animals, such as dogs and cats, can significantly reduce the risk of diseases like rabies.
Hygiene practices: Promoting good hygiene practices, including regular handwashing, proper food handling, and safe disposal of animal waste, can minimize the risk of infection.
Surveillance and early detection: Establishing surveillance systems to detect zoonotic diseases in animals and humans, enabling prompt identification, isolation, and treatment of infected individuals.
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A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with a juxtaglomerular cell rennin-secreting tumor. Lab tests reveal a plasma concentration of angiotensin II five times normal. Which of the following set of findings would be expected?Renal Blood Flow Blood Volume 个 Blood Pressure 个 个 个 A. B. C. D. E F. T小十个小 G. H.
A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a rennin-secreting juxtaglomerular cell tumor. Angiotensin II plasma concentration is revealed to be five times normal. Therefore, A, C, and E are the correct options.
The following findings are expected in such a case: Increased Blood Pressure and Decreased Renal Blood Flow and Blood Volume.Juxtaglomerular cells are specialized cells in the kidney that are located around the afferent arterioles that supply blood to the glomerulus. They are important in regulating blood pressure and kidney function. Juxtaglomerular cells are important in maintaining blood pressure and kidney function. Renin, which is a hormone secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, is crucial for the production of angiotensin II, which in turn aids in the regulation of blood pressure.Angiotensin II is a hormone that helps to regulate blood pressure by constricting blood vessels and raising blood volume. Renal blood flow is the volume of blood flowing through the kidneys per unit time. Blood volume is the total amount of blood in the circulatory system. Blood pressure is the pressure of blood against the walls of arteries. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a medical condition characterized by elevated blood pressure.In a case of juxtaglomerular cell rennin-secreting tumor, Angiotensin II plasma concentration is revealed to be five times normal. The following findings are expected in such a case: 1. Increased Blood Pressure, 2. Decreased Renal Blood Flow, 3. Decreased Blood Volume.Therefore, A, C, and E are the correct options.Learn more about Renin: https://brainly.com/question/13047193
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6. (a) Substance V is not normally present in the urine. Does this prove that it is neither filtered
nor secreted?
Answer:
it does not prove anything
Explanation:
unable to flex elbow against gravity suggests nerve lesion at
If a person is unable to flex their elbow against gravity, it suggests that there may be a nerve lesion affecting the muscles responsible for elbow flexion.
Elbow flexion is primarily controlled by the biceps muscle, which receives innervation from the musculocutaneous nerve. If this nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to weakness or paralysis of the biceps muscle, making it difficult to flex the elbow against the force of gravity. The musculocutaneous nerve originates from the brachial plexus in the neck and travels down the arm, providing innervation to several muscles, including the biceps.
If the nerve is damaged or compressed at any point along its course, it can lead to weakness or paralysis of the biceps muscle, which will result in difficulty flexing the elbow against gravity. Other symptoms that may accompany a nerve lesion affecting elbow flexion include numbness or tingling in the arm, weakness or paralysis of other muscles in the arm, and a loss of sensation in the skin over the affected area.
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Advantages of panoramic imaging,when contrasted with intraoral imaging,include:
A)less radiation exposure.
B)no focal trough limitations.
C)lower equipment cost.
D)both a and c
Panoramic imaging is a diagnostic tool that allows dentists to visualize the entire jaw in a single image. Compared to intraoral imaging, it offers several advantages, some of which include: D) both a and c.Panoramic Imaging is a useful diagnostic tool for visualizing a patient's entire jaw.
Compared to intraoral imaging, this technology offers a number of benefits, including:Less Radiation Exposure: Panoramic imaging exposes patients to significantly less radiation than intraoral imaging techniques. As a result, it is a safer diagnostic tool for patients.No Focal Trough Limitations: Unlike intraoral imaging, which has focal trough limitations, panoramic imaging allows clinicians to see the entire jaw in a single image. This makes it easier to identify and diagnose problems, such as impacted teeth, cysts, and tumors.Lower Equipment Cost: Panoramic imaging equipment is less expensive than intraoral imaging equipment. As a result, it can be a more cost-effective diagnostic tool for dental practices. It can be used to diagnose a wide range of oral health issues, such as impacted teeth, bone abnormalities, and TMJ disorders.Panoramic imaging is a useful diagnostic tool that offers many benefits over traditional intraoral imaging techniques. These include less radiation exposure, no focal trough limitations, and lower equipment costs. As a result, it is a valuable tool for dentists and oral health professionals.
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Panoramic imaging offers advantages such as less radiation exposure but does have focal trough limitations and generally costs more than intraoral imaging equipment. Therefore, the correct answer to the posed question is D) both a and c.
Explanation:The advantages of panoramic imaging over intraoral imaging in medical diagnostics are several. Option A is correct as panoramic imaging usually results in less radiation exposure for the patient, which is a significant benefit considering health and safety concerns. Meanwhile, option C is incorrect because panoramic imaging equipment tends to be more expensive than intraoral imaging equipment due to its more complex technology. The assertion that there are no focal trough limitations (option B) is also not true, as panoramic imaging does have a focal trough that must be appropriately accounted for to produce clear images.
Therefore, the correct answer to your question is D) both a and c. While panoramic imaging does offer the significant advantage of reduced radiation exposure, it does have focal trough limitations and comes with higher equipment costs.
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The nurse is explaining the medication options available for pain relief during labor. The nurse realizes the client needs further teaching when the client makes which statement?
Answer:
The nurse realizes the client needs further teaching when the client makes the statement; I can have an epidural as soon I start contracting
Answer:
i can have epidurial as soon i start contracting
Explanation:
the doctor said "during" not 'whenever you want'
(you can ask for epidurial anytime as long as your 4 or more centimeters dialated)
it is often said that a drug discovery program is only as good as its assay. what are two potential consequences of carrying out a drug-screening program using a poor assay?
It is often said that a drug discovery program is only as good as its assay. The two potential consequences of carrying out a drug-screening program using a poor assay are False positives or false negatives and Lack of reproducibility.
If a poor assay is used, there can be serious consequences for the drug screening program. Here are two potential consequences:
1. False positives or false negatives: A poor assay can lead to false positive or false negative results. False positives occur when a compound is identified as having activity against the targeted disease when it does not actually have any therapeutic effect.
False negatives occur when a compound that has therapeutic potential is missed because the assay fails to detect its activity. These errors can result in wasted time and resources, as well as potentially harmful drugs being developed or promising drugs being overlooked.
2. Lack of reproducibility: Another consequence of using a poor assay is that the results may not be reproducible. Reproducibility is the ability to obtain the same results when the experiment is repeated under the same conditions. If the assay is unreliable, it may not be possible to reproduce the results, which can lead to confusion and uncertainty about the effectiveness of the drug candidate.
This can make it difficult to advance the drug development program, as investors and regulators require consistent and reliable data before approving a new drug.
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the skull and its cellular structure?
The skull is a bony structure that supports the face and forms a protective cavity for the brain. It is comprised of many bones, which are formed by intramembranous ossification, and joined by sutures (fibrous joints).
Explanation:The skull is a bone structure that forms the head in vertebrates. It supports the structures of the face and provides a protective cavity for the brain. The skull is composed of two parts: the cranium and the mandible.
Solve or answer the item.
The feature in electronic medical records that contains the list of care, medications,
tests, and treatment the doctor decides is necessary for the patient is called
Enter the answer.
Answer:
Patient Medication ProfileExplanation:
Patient Medication Profile is the document which contains every detail about patient.What is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease
A screening test is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease.
A screening test is utilize to discover probable health issues as well as illnesses in persons who are asymptomatic. The objective is early identification and lifestyle adjustments or surveillance to lower illness risk or diagnose disease early enough to treat it is most effectively. Screening tests are not diagnostic; rather, they are designed to select a portion of the population who really should undergo further testing to assess the presence or absence of illness.
While screening tests aren't always 100% accurate, it is often more helpful to have them at the suggested times by your healthcare professional than not to have them at all.
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__________ are often used to relieve pain, reduce anxiety, lower heart rate, and respiration, and induce sleep.
A. Amphetamines
B. Depressants
C. Hallucinogens
D. None of the above
Answer:
Depressants
Explanation:
Depressants are known to relieve not only anxiety but helps relieve depression and other mental problems such as problems sleeping.
Hope this helped :)
O Periodontist
4 Multiple Choice
Protective bases are placed when it is necessary to protect the pulp before the restoration is placed, because without this protection there may be
O Premature loss of the restorative material
O Premature contact on the restorative material
O Post-operative sensitivity and damage to the pulp
o Occlusal trauma
Answer:
Post-operative sensitivity and damage to the pulp
Explanation:
Protective bases are applied to the pulp during the process of dental operations. These protective bases are usually applied in a thickened manner. This helps to prevent post operative sensitivity to substances such as cold sensations. The pulp is also protected as a result of the application of protective bases.
This makes Protective bases being placed when it is necessary to protect the pulp before the restoration is placed in order to prevent Post-operative sensitivity and damage to the pulp valid.
what is the Presentation of appendicitis in young kids ?
Appendicitis in young children is marked by abdominal pain that often starts near the navel and moves to the lower right abdomen, accompanied by a variety of symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, fever, and changes in bowel habits.
Appendicitis in young children typically presents with symptoms that may be challenging to identify due to their inability to clearly communicate discomfort. Common signs of appendicitis in kids include abdominal pain, which often starts near the navel and migrates to the lower right side of the abdomen. This pain can become more severe over time and may be exacerbated by movement, coughing, or deep breathing.
In addition to pain, other symptoms may include loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, fever, and diarrhea or constipation. However, these symptoms can also be associated with other common childhood illnesses, making diagnosis difficult. It is essential for parents and caregivers to monitor these symptoms and consult a medical professional if they persist or worsen.
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a patient at a psychiatric hospital told his nurse that the fbi is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been plated in the unit walls. which action would be the most therapeutic response? gio, a patient at a psychiatric hospital told his nurse that the fbi is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been plated in the unit walls. which action would be the most therapeutic response? tell gio to wait and talk about these beliefs in his one-on-one counselling sessions. confront the delusional material directly by telling gio that this simply is not so. tell gio that this must seem frightening to him but that you believe he is safe here. isolate gio when he begins to talk about these beliefs.
The most therapeutic response would be to tell Gio to wait and discuss his beliefs in his one-on-one counseling sessions.
In psychiatric care, it is crucial to approach patients with empathy and respect for their experiences, even if those experiences may seem delusional or irrational. Telling Gio to wait and address his beliefs during his individual counseling sessions allows for a more personalized and focused exploration of his thoughts and feelings. It demonstrates a willingness to engage with Gio's perspective, fostering a therapeutic alliance and creating a safe space for him to express his concerns.
Confronting the delusional material directly by telling Gio that his beliefs are not true may lead to resistance, defensiveness, or a breakdown in trust. Invalidating his experiences can escalate his distress and hinder the therapeutic process. Instead, acknowledging his fears and providing reassurance that he is safe in the hospital environment can help alleviate his anxiety and build a foundation for further therapeutic work.
Isolating Gio when he begins to discuss his beliefs can be counterproductive as it may contribute to his feelings of mistrust and reinforce his paranoia. Social isolation can exacerbate symptoms and prevent opportunities for dialogue and support.
By encouraging Gio to share his beliefs in his one-on-one counseling sessions, the nurse can explore the underlying emotions, thoughts, and experiences that contribute to his delusions. This approach respects Gio's autonomy, promotes a therapeutic relationship, and allows for a comprehensive understanding of his condition to guide appropriate treatment interventions.
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how long will it take you to travel from the gate to baggage claim if you walk while riding on the moving sidewalk?
Answer:
Explanation:
The speed of the moving sidewalk: Moving sidewalks typically run at a speed between 0.5-1.4 meters per second, with an average speed of around 1 meter per second.Your walking speed: The average walking speed for a human is around 1.4 meters per second.The distance between the gate and baggage claim: The length of the moving sidewalk will vary depending on the airport, but they can range from a few meters to several hundred meters.Given the above information, the time it will take you to travel from the gate to baggage claim while riding on the moving sidewalk will depend on the speed of the sidewalk and the distance between the two points. If the speed of the sidewalk is less than your average walking speed, you may choose to walk rather than ride, which would likely take you less time. If the speed of the sidewalk is greater than your walking speed, it would likely be faster to ride rather than walk. However, the exact time it would take can not be determined without more specific information.
MS is a 4 year old girl with asthma. She will receive montelukast. Select the correct dose for a four year old child.
A 5 mg chewable tablet taken once daily in the evening
A 10 mg chewable tablet taken once daily in the evening
A 5 mg chewable tablet taken BID
A 4 mg chewable tablet taken once daily in the evening
A 10 mg chewable tablet taken BID
The correct dose for a 4 year old child with asthma who will receive montelukast is a 5 mg chewable tablet taken once daily in the evening.
To stop asthma attacks, use montelukast. When an attack has already begun, it is not employed to relieve it. You should utilise another inhaled medication to stop an asthma attack that has already begun. Consult your doctor if you do not have an inhalation medication on hand for an attack or if you have any concerns about this.
Even though your asthma seems to be getting better, you still need to take montelukast at the same time every day for it to work correctly.
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Comparing State Requirements
Why are the requirements for pharmacy technicians different in each state?
a. The 10th Amendment allows each state to develop it's own Pharmacy Practice Act, which defines the role of the pharmacy technician.
b. The role of the pharmacy technician is more demanding and has greater responsibilities in states that require certification.
c. States without certification requirements have a greater need for pharmacy technicians, so there are fewer barriers to starting in this career.
d. The Pharmacy Practice Act in each state allows the Boards of Pharmacy to decide if certification or registration is important in that state.
Answer:
A. The 10th Amendment allows each state to develop it's own Pharmacy Practice Act, which defines the role of the pharmacy technician.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Answer:
A. The 10th Amendment allows each state to develop its own Pharmacy Practice Act, which defines the role of the pharmacy technician.
Explanation:
EDG 22'
A client's blood glucose level is 23 mg/dL. The client is unresponsive and unable to swallow. What priority action should be taken to increase the blood glucose rapidly.
Priority actions that should be taken to increase the blood glucose rapidly are:
Consume 15 grams of carbohydrate.Wait fir 10-15 minutes and re-check the sugar level.Inject glucagon if necessary.What is blood glucose?Blood sugar, or glucose, is the main sugar found in your blood. It comes from the food you eat, and is your body's main source of energy.
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This protozoa lives in warm freash water, and is transmitted from the environment and into the host when contaminated water enters the nasla cavity. The disease it causes has a 97% fatality rate.
Answer:
Naegleria fowleri
Explanation: