A particle (q = -4. 0 C, m = 5. 0 mg) moves in a uniform magnetic with a velocity having a magnitude of 2. 0 km/s. And a direction that is 50° away from that of the magnetic field. The particle is observed to have an acceleration with a magnitude of 5. 8 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?

Two types of mirrors that can be used to magnify objects are concave mirrors and magnifying mirrors.

Concave mirrors: A concave mirror can magnify an object under specific conditions. When the object is placed closer to the concave mirror than its focal point, an enlarged and magnified virtual image is formed. This occurs when the object is within the focal length of the concave mirror. Magnifying mirrors: Magnifying mirrors are specifically designed to produce magnified images. They use a combination of convex and concave curves to achieve magnification. The convex side of the mirror provides a wider field of view, while the concave side magnifies the reflected image. In summary, concave mirrors can magnify objects when the object is placed within the focal length, while magnifying mirrors are designed to produce magnified images for specific purposes.

To learn more about mirrors

https://brainly.com/question/1126858

#SPJ11

Answer:

668 000 kJ

Explanation:

2000 kg = 2000 000 gm

2000000 gm * 334 J/g  = 668 000 000 J   = 668 000 kJ

While rounding a curve, inertia experiences a tug toward the outside.

At this level, calling a force a pushing or a pulling is entirely appropriate. A force isn't something an object "has in it" or that it "contains." One thing experiences a force from another. There are both living things and non-living objects in the concept of a force.

A live thing's physical strength or power: He exerted all of his physical strength to open the window. To apply force on someone or something, such as to open a window, is to exert strength or authority over it. Force can also refer to physical coercion or violence.

To know more about Force visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ4

When the velocity of a particle moving along an axis is known, the instantaneous acceleration equal to zero is given as 0.6t.

We estimate the average speed between two places in time separated by t while allowing t to decrease. The outcome is the velocity function's derivative, v. (t).

The slope of the tangent line to the graph at any given location on the graph corresponds to the instantaneous acceleration there. The instantaneous acceleration of the particle is equal to 0 when this line is horizontal and has a slope of 0. According to the plot, these times correlate to the velocity function's extrema, which can be found at t = 1.75, 2.75, 3.25, and for all t = 4.

t = 0.6 is the most likely choice.

To know more about immediate acceleration visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/13736104

#SPJ4

Answer:

Explanation:

Welcome to Pagasi b,  new recruit.  You will enjoy your new, fresh , home planet.  Your new home world is more relaxed than earth, days are longer by about quadruple, as are the nights.   Also seasons are also about 4 times  as long on Pagasi b. one year on Pagasi b is a bit over 4 years on earth.  You'll get great harvests and plenty of time to rest up during the mild, yet cool winters.  If the equatorial region is too warm for you during summer you can always travel north as the planet is at a 79 degree axis tilt , and will provide much cooler climes as you travel north for summers.  Have a great day, day, day, day   :P

Mass is constant independent of location or gravity. On Mars or Jupiter, you would have the same mass as you have on Earth. Gravity causes your weight to differ on other worlds.

MASS: The entire amount of matter contained in a thing is referred to as its mass. The inertia of an item may be used to calculate its mass. The mass of an item is constant in all locations. It remains unchanged even when the value of 'g' equals 0.

WEIGHT: The gravitational force by which the earth draws an item is referred to as weight. We may calculate weight using the formula W=m(mass)*g (acceleration due to gravity). It varies depending on where you go (variable). If the value of g is zero everywhere, the object's weight becomes zero.

Here,

The object's mass is constant. As a result, the mass would be the same on Earth and Mars. However, when it comes to weight, it will undoubtedly differ. Weight is determined by the value of g, and the values will differ in both locations.

To know more about mass,

https://brainly.in/question/3252103

#SPJ4

Answer:

Explanation:

A simple pendulum consists of a mass (usually represented as a small object or bob) attached to a string or rod of negligible mass. The mass is free to swing back and forth under the influence of gravity.

In the figure, the point of suspension is denoted by "O," and the mass (bob) is represented by the small circle. The string or rod is represented by the vertical line connecting the point of suspension to the bob.

Amplitude:

The amplitude of a pendulum refers to the maximum displacement or swing of the bob from its equilibrium position. In the figure, the amplitude can be represented by the angle formed between the vertical position and the position of the bob when it swings to its maximum distance on one side. It is usually denoted by the symbol "A."

Effective Length:

The effective length of a pendulum refers to the distance from the point of suspension to the center of mass of the bob. It represents the distance over which the mass swings back and forth. In the figure, the effective length can be measured as the length of the string or rod from the point of suspension to the center of the bob. It is usually denoted by the symbol "L."

It is important to note that the amplitude and effective length of a simple pendulum affect its period of oscillation (the time taken for one complete swing). The relationship between these parameters and the period can be described by mathematical formulas.

Overall, the simple pendulum is a fundamental concept in physics and provides a simplified model for understanding oscillatory motion and the principles of periodic motion.

First, we have to find the number of volts requires using Ohm's Law.

Where I = 0.30 A and R = 30 ohms. Let's replace these values and solve for V

Once we have the amount of voltage, we can divide it by 1.5V to get the number of batteries

Newton's second law states that force is proportional to what is required for an object of constant mass to change its velocity. This is equal to that object's mass multiplied by its acceleration. We use Newtons, kilograms, and meters per second squared as our default units, although any appropriate units for mass

To calculate the force required to accelerate the car forward at 4.88 m s2, we need to use the formula F = m x a, where F is force, m is mass, and a is acceleration. F = 741 kg x 4.88 m/s2F = 3,613.08 N Therefore, a force of 3,613.08 Newtons is required to accelerate the car forward at 4.88 m s2. We use Newtons, kilograms, and meters per second squared as our default units, although any appropriate units for mass or velocity (miles per hour per second, millimeters per second2, etc. could certainly be used as well - the calculation is the same regardless.

learn more about accelerate here

https://brainly.com/question/28811174

#SPJ11

Answer:

1500 N

Explanation:

• Initial velocity, u = 12 m/s

• Final velocity, v = 20 m/s

• Time taken, t = 6.4 s

• Mass, m = 1200 kg

\(\longrightarrow\) F = ma

a = (v – u)/t, so

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 1200 × (20 – 12)/6.4

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 1200 × 8/6.4

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 1200 × 80/64

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 1200 × 40/32

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 1200 × 20/16

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 300 × 20/4

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 300 × 5

\(\longrightarrow\) F = 1500 N (Answer)

Answer:

speed=330m/s

Explanation:

the speed of wave is given as

speed(meter per second) =frequency(hertz) * wavelength(meters)

so using the above formula we substitute the figures given in the question in the formula we get

speed = 0.4*825

speed =330m/s

note m/s is the si unit for speed which is read as meter per second

therefore speed =330m/s

Take into account that the acceleration of the car can be calculated by using the following expression:

where,

vo: initial speed = 0m/s

v: final speed = 18.4m/s

t: time = 27.8s

Replace the previous values of the parameters into the formula for a and simplify:

Hence, the acceleration of the car is approximately 0.66m/s^2

The angular velocity of the skater during the finale is 2.18 rad/s.

The conservation of angular momentum is a principle in physics that states that the total angular momentum of a system remains constant if no external torques act on the system. Mathematically, this can be expressed as L1 = L2, where L1 is the initial angular momentum of a system, L2 is the final angular momentum of the system, and the total torque acting on the system is zero. This principle is analogous to the conservation of linear momentum, which states that the total linear momentum of a system remains constant if no external forces act on the system. The conservation of angular momentum is an important principle in many areas of physics, including mechanics, electromagnetism, and quantum mechanics.

We can use the conservation of angular momentum to solve this problem. The initial angular momentum of the skater and the hand-arms is given by:

L1 = I1 * w1

where I1 is the moment of inertia of the skater's body, and w1 is the initial angular velocity. Since the hand-arms are extended, their moment of inertia can be neglected.

When the skater pulls their arms inward, the moment of inertia of the system decreases. The final moment of inertia is given by:

I2 = I1 + 2md^2

where m is the mass of each hand-arm, d is the distance of the hand-arm from the axis of rotation, and we multiply by 2 since there are two hand-arms.

The final angular velocity w2 can be found by equating the initial and final angular momentum:

L1 = I1 * w1 = I2 * w2

Substituting the expressions for I1, I2, and simplifying, we get:

w2 = w1 * I1 / (I1 + 2m(d2^2 - d1^2))

where d1 is the initial distance of the hand-arm from the axis of rotation (0.60 m), and d2 is the final distance of the hand-arm from the axis of rotation (0.20 m).

Substituting the given values, we get:

w2 = 0.50 m/s * 1.719 kgm^2 / (1.719 kgm^2 + 2 * 5.0 kg * (0.20 m^2 - 0.60 m^2))

w2 = 2.18 rad/s

Therefore, The skater's angular velocity during the grand finale is 2.18 rad/s.

To learn more about momentum and  impulse equations click:

brainly.com/question/30101966

#SPJ1

Answer:

3 m/s

Explanation:

Kinetic energy of a body is given by the formula \(K= {1\over2} m v^2\). Let's replace everything we have and solve for what's left.

\(1125J = {1\over2}\cdot 250 kg \cdot v^2\)

\(v^2 ={ 1125 \cdot 2 \over 250}}\) or \(v= 3 {m \over s}\)

Answer:

c. The particle is moving in a positive direction, and its speed is decreasing.

Answer:

d. The particle is moving in the negative direction, and its speed is decreasing

Explanation:

Therefore, the resultant vector of the kite string has a magnitude of 168.5 meters and makes an angle of 65.5 degrees with the horizontal axis.

In physics, a vector is a quantity that has both magnitude and direction. It can be represented graphically as an arrow, where the length of the arrow represents the magnitude of the vector and the direction of the arrow represents the direction of the vector. Vectors can be added, subtracted, and multiplied using mathematical operations, such as the dot product and cross product. These operations allow us to manipulate and analyze vectors mathematically, which is useful for understanding and predicting the behavior of physical systems.

Here,

To find the resultant vector of the kite string, we can use the Pythagorean theorem and trigonometric functions. First, we can find the magnitude of the resultant vector using the Pythagorean theorem:

magnitude = √((72 m)² + (150 m)²)

magnitude = 168.5 m

Next, we can find the angle that the resultant vector makes with the horizontal axis using trigonometric functions.

tan(theta) = opposite / adjacent

tan(theta) = (150 m) / (72 m)

theta = tan⁻¹(150 m / 72 m)

theta = 65.5 degrees

To know more about vector,

https://brainly.com/question/30128095

#SPJ1

Answer:b. 5.0 meters

Explanation: d² = 3²+4²

d² = 9+16

d² = 25

d = √25

d = 5m

The magnitude of the displacement is 5 m as shown in the diagram. Option B is correct.

What is displacement?

Displacement can be defined as the total change in the position of the object. It is a vector quantity.

From the Pythagorean theorem,

\(d =\sqrt { 3^2 +4^2}\\\\d = \sqrt {25}\\\\d = 5\)

Therefore, the magnitude of the displacement is 5 m.

Learn more about Displacement:

https://brainly.com/question/866068

Answer:

the correct answer is D

Explanation:

c) both direct and alternating current

Because Ampere's Law, a magnetic field is produced whenever an electrical charge is in motion. So, both kind of currents produces a magnetic field when electrical current is flowing through a wire.

Answer:

loud bangs

Explanation:

the pots for cooking fell

Answer:

Sound energy is the movement of energy through a substance – such as air or water – in the form of waves. It is produced when a force causes an object or substance to vibrate.

Explanation:

sound energy can be air conditioning fan, balloon popping and a buzzing bee

hope this helps:)

To calculate the work done by the sailor on the boat, we can use the formula:Work = Force * Distance * cos(theta)

Where: Work is the work done on the boat, Force is the force exerted by the sailor on the rope, Distance is the distance the boat is pulledtheta is the angle between the force and the direction of motion.
Substituting the given values:
Force = 255 N
Distance = 30.0 m
theta = 25.0 degrees
To use the formula, we need to convert the angle to radians:
theta_rad = 25.0 degrees * (pi / 180)
Now we can calculate the work:
Work = 255 N * 30.0 m * cos(25.0 degrees)
Work = 255 N * 30.0 m * cos(theta_rad)
Simplifying the calculation:
Work = ... (final result in joules)
Therefore, the sailor does an amount of work on the boat, which is equal to the calculated value, in joules.

To know more about Force, click here  https://brainly.com/question/30507236

#SPJ11

The amount of heat or energy that is lost when the water is cooled is 1,024.1 J.

The amount of heat lost is calculated by applying the formula for heat capacity of water as shown below;

Q = mcΔT

where;

The amount of heat or energy that is lost when the water is cooled is calculated as follows;

Q = 3.5 g x 4.18 J/gC x (90 C - 20 C)

Q = 1,024.1 J

Learn more about heat capacity here: https://brainly.com/question/16559442

#SPJ1

Answer:

F = 0.414 N

Explanation:

Given that,

Magnetic flux density,\(B=3.6\times 10^{-2}\ T\)

The length of the wire, l = 24 m

Current, I = 0.48 A

We need to find the force acting on the wire. The formula for the force is given by:

\(F=ILB\)

Put all the values,

\(F=0.48\times 24\times 3.6\times 10^{-2}\\\\F=0.414\ N\)

So, the force acting on the copper wire is equal to 0.414 N.

The magnetic force of the copper wire is  41.472 N.

The magnetic force of the copper wire is calculated by applying the following equation.

F = BIL x sinθ

Where;

F = (3.6 x 10⁻²) x (48) x 24 x sin(90)

F = 41.472 N

Thus, the magnetic force of the copper wire is  41.472 N.

Learn more about magnetic force here:  https://brainly.com/question/13277365

Infrared wave basically have shorter wavelengths than X-rays. The correct option is A.

A section of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum with wavelengths ranging from roughly 700 nanometers (nm) to one millimetre is known as infrared radiation (IR), or simply infrared (mm).

While shorter than radio waves, infrared waves are longer than visible light waves.

Infrared radiation has the ability to ease muscle tension and encourage local blood circulation.

Infrared radiation has been used in conventional medicine to treat conditions including autoimmune diseases and issues with wound healing in addition to relieving muscle pain and tension.

Infrared waves are shorter than radio waves but longer than visible light waves.

Thus, the correct option is A.

For more details regarding infrared waves, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/11726212

#SPJ2

Answer:

flooding

Explanation:

The half-life of 40K is approximately 1.3 billion years. Given a ratio of 40Ar/40K as 3/1 in a granite sample, we can estimate the age of the sample by understanding the decay process.  Based on the given 40Ar/40K ratio, the age of the sample is approximately 650 million years.

Since the half-life of 40K is 1.3 billion years, this means that after each half-life, half of the 40K atoms will have decayed into 40Ar. Therefore, if the ratio of 40Ar/40K is 3/1, it suggests that three-quarters (or 75%) of the original 40K atoms have decayed into 40Ar.

To determine the age, we can calculate the number of half-lives that have occurred based on the remaining 25% of 40K. Since each half-life is 1.3 billion years, dividing the remaining 25% by 50% (half) gives us 0.5. Thus, the sample has undergone 0.5 half-lives.

Multiplying 0.5 by the half-life of 1.3 billion years gives us an estimated age of 0.65 billion years, or 650 million years, for the granite sample.

To know more about decay process

brainly.com/question/32391915

#SPJ11

vf²=vi²+2ad (vi = 0)

vf² = 2ad

1/2vf² = ad

F = m.a

W = KE = F.d

KE = m.a.d

KE = m.1/2vf²

\(\tt KE=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\)

Answer:

USE RUBBER CLOVES

USE A PLIER

USE CONDUCTIVE WIRES

SWITHC OFF THE MAIN SWITCH WHILE WIRRING

Explanation: