According to the DSM-5, in order for a diagnosis of intellectual disability to be made, the following criteria must first be met: No schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders; no predominant general medical condition, etc.
What is the significance of DSM-5?It tests for intellectual disability when an individual receives a score of 2 or more standard deviations below the mean on a standardized intelligence test and demonstrates limitations in everyday adaptive skills such as communication, self-care, etc.
Hence, according to the DSM-5, in order for a diagnosis of intellectual disability to be made, the following criteria must first be met: No schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders; no predominant general medical condition, etc.
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Enulose 10g/15mL Sig: 2 tbsp po bid x 3d - how many ml is the patient taking per day?
The volume of the medication in mL the patient is taking per day is 90 mL.
What does the expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d mean?The above expression is a dosage of the medication.
The expression 2 tbsp po bid x 3d means that 2 tablespoonfuls of the medication are to be taken by mouth 3 times daily.
The volume of 1 tablespoonful in mL = 15 ml
The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL will be 15 ml * 2
The volume of 2 tablespoonful in mL = 30 mL
The medication is to be taken 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily
The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 30 mL * 3
The volume of 2 tablespoonfuls three times daily = 90 mL
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Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine?
A. Oxidation.
B. Reduction.
C. Glucuronidation.
D. Hydrolysis.
E. Alcohol dehydrogenation.
Glucuronidation is the phase II metabolic reaction that makes phase I metabolites easily excreted in the urine.
Why do phase I metabolites need to be excreted in the urine?Because they are substances necessary for the organism.Because they can disrupt the body's biological processes.Phase I metabolites cannot accumulate in an organism as they can develop toxicity and prevent new biological processes from developing.
Ideally, these metabolites are eliminated from the body after they are used, but their molecular structure makes them easily trapped in the renal tubes, preventing excretion.
For this reason, Glucuronidation adds glucuronic acid to these metabolites allowing them to conjugate with water and manage to be excreted in the urine.
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Older adults often experience which of the following?
Increased self-identity
Increased sexual activity
Decreased acute illness
Increased productivity
Older adults often experience increased self-identity as they age which is denoted as option A.
What is Self identity?This refers to the ways in which an individual views himself and increases as people get older.
The other options will experience a decrease as people get old which is why self-identity is the most appropriate choice.
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5
Select the correct answer.
Cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby's cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby’s visual development. Which is the best way for her to do that?
A. by letting the baby watch television programs
B. by exposing the baby to fast moving objects
C. by limiting the baby's exposure to bright colors
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors
Answer:
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors
Explanation:
Newborns find high contrast colors easier to pick out.
They cannot see far away (more than 30 cm), so answer A is incorrect. Newborn sight is fuzzy and they are just learning to track objects with their eyes, so answer B is also incorrect.
Which part of our body dies first?
Answer:
If you're asking about a normal death, with no complications or diseases, the brain dies first due to a lack of supply of oxygen, followed by the heart, the liver, and so on, until your whole body has died.
Explanation:
Hope this helped!
the recovery period from a disease when the numbers of the causative agent are decreasing and the symptoms have disappeared is called which of the following?
The convalescent phase is the recovery period from a disease when the numbers of the causative agent are decreasing and the symptoms have disappeared.
Convalescent phase is the phase of getting cured and the final stage of presence of small infections which are reducing with time. In this period, the person begins to acquire the same strength and vital signs as they have in normal condition. It is important to take complete rest and medications during this period because any small mistake may cause the injury to open again and turn sore which can negatively impact the health of the patient. The five stages of disease are the incubation period, prodromal phase, illness, decline of injuries, and convalescence period.
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Which of the following is in compliance with
medical ethics?
A doctor tells a patient about the side effects
before starting a new treatment.
A doctor starts a new treatment before telling
the patient about its side effects.
A doctor tells a patient that there is no point
in giving informed consent, since the patient
needs the treatment to live.
DONE
Answer:a
Explanation:
What is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease
A screening test is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease.
A screening test is utilize to discover probable health issues as well as illnesses in persons who are asymptomatic. The objective is early identification and lifestyle adjustments or surveillance to lower illness risk or diagnose disease early enough to treat it is most effectively. Screening tests are not diagnostic; rather, they are designed to select a portion of the population who really should undergo further testing to assess the presence or absence of illness.
While screening tests aren't always 100% accurate, it is often more helpful to have them at the suggested times by your healthcare professional than not to have them at all.
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average blood pressure is 120/80, but blood pressure readings can range much higher or lower. typically someone is diagnosed with hypertension--high blood pressure--only when the blood pressure values are 140/90 or higher. however, any value greater than 120/80 increases the patient's risk of heart attack or stroke. finding that people have blood pressure values across the full range of the normal curve is consistent with . group of answer choices continual classification categorical classification medical classification dimensional classification
Average blood pressure is 120/80, but blood pressure readings can range much higher or lower. typically someone is diagnosed with hypertension--high blood pressure--only when the blood pressure values are 140/90 or higher.
however, any value greater than 120/80 increases the patient's risk of heart attack or stroke. finding that people have blood pressure values across the full range of the normal curve is consistent with dimensional classification .
Blood pressure is the force exerted by your blood on the walls of your arteries. Every time your heart beats, blood is pumped into your arteries. When your heart beats and pumps blood,
your blood pressure is at its greatest. This is referred to as systolic pressure. Your blood pressure drops when your heart is at rest, between beats. This is known as diastolic pressure.
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The causes of E/BD have been attributed to each of the following EXCEPT
A) biological disorders and diseases.
B) pathological family relationships.
C) undesirable school experiences.
D) membership in a particular cultural group.
The causes of emotional/behavioral disorders (E/BD) have been attributed to various factors including biological disorders and diseases, pathological family relationships, and undesirable school experiences. However, membership in a particular cultural group has not been identified as a cause of E/BD. Therefore, the answer to your question is D) membership in a particular cultural group.
The causes of Emotional/Behavioral Disorders (E/BD) have been attributed to each of the following EXCEPT D) membership in a particular cultural group. However, membership in a particular cultural group has not been identified as a cause of E/BD. Therefore, the answer to your question is D) membership in a particular cultural group.
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Under Medicare part A, covered items in an inpatient hospital include the following EXCEPT
A. Room and board
B. Physician services
C. Drugs and biological
D. Blood products
Under Medicare part A, covered items in an inpatient hospital include the following EXCEPT Room and board. The correct option is A. Room and board.
Medicare Part A is known as hospital insurance. It includes inpatient hospital care, limited skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and home health care services.
It is a government-sponsored insurance program for people aged 65 and up who have paid into the Medicare system and are entitled to Social Security retirement benefits.
Content loaded Under Medicare part A, covered items in an inpatient hospital include the following:
Physician services Medically necessary hospitalizations Semi-private rooms Meals General nursing careSurgical procedures Medications administered in a hospital environment Lab tests X-rays Blood transfusions & other similar services Drugs and biologicals (Excluding those supplied by the patient's provider or home health agency.)
Durable medical equipment (DME) for use during the stay in the hospital Limited home health care The following services are excluded from coverage in an inpatient hospital: Amenities, like a phone or television Private-duty nursing services Deductibles and coinsurance are required for covered services.
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The clinic nurse is preparing to discuss cardiovascular changes of pregnancy in a prenatal class. which information is appropriate for the nurse to present to this group? select all that apply.
The information that is appropriate to be presented for the prenatal class that is going to discuss cardiovascular changes of pregnancy are:
Red blood cells number will be increased during pregnancy.At term, the heart rate has increased by 15 to 20 bpm.In a supine position, some degree of compression of the vena cava will occur.During pregnancy, there are a lot of changes that happen to the cardiovascular system. Besides the changes that are already listed in the answer above, the changes that will happen are:
Increased cardiac output (the amount of blood to be carried by the blood vessels).Expanded blood volume.Reduced blood pressure.Attached below is an image that shows a man who is lying in a supine position.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follow:
The clinic nurse is preparing to discuss cardiovascular changes of pregnancy in a prenatal class. which information is appropriate for the nurse to present to this group?
Red blood cells number will be increased during pregnancy.In a supine position, some degree of compression of the vena cava will occur.Decreased cardiac output.At term, the heart rate has increased by 15 to 20 bpm.Learn more about changes of pregnancy at https://brainly.com/question/15764684
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medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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Which health problem occurs in premature infants born before the transfer of vitamin E from the mother to the infant in the last weeks of pregnancy?
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Hemochromatosis
c. Thalassemia
d. Erythrocyte hemolysis
The health problem that happens in premature infants born before the exchange of vitamin E from the mother to the newborn child within the final weeks of pregnancy is "Erythrocyte hemolysis". Option D
What is Erythrocyte hemolysis about?Erythrocyte hemolysis alludes to the breakdown of red blood cells, which can lead to iron deficiency and other complications. Vitamin E plays a pivotal part in ensuring red blood cells from oxidative harm, and untimely newborn children who are lacking in vitamin E may encounter erythrocyte hemolysis.
Therefore, Hemolysis is the pulverization of red blood cells (erythrocytes). The red blood cells are fundamental portion of the blood. They carry oxygen from your lungs to tissues all through the body.
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Answer:
The health problem that occurs in premature infants born before the transfer of vitamin E from the mother to the infant in the last weeks of pregnancy is option d. Erythrocyte hemolysis.
Vitamin E is important for the protection of red blood cells (erythrocytes) against oxidative damage. In the last weeks of pregnancy, there is a transfer of vitamin E from the mother to the infant, which helps in the development of the baby's immune system and protects against certain health issues.
Premature infants are born before this transfer occurs, and as a result, they can be deficient in vitamin E. Without adequate levels of vitamin E, the erythrocytes of premature infants can be more susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to their destruction or hemolysis. This condition is known as erythrocyte hemolysis, where the premature infant's red blood cells are destroyed at a faster rate than they can be replaced. This can result in anemia and other complications.
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What considerations should public health officials take into account in deciding when to launch a vaccine development process for influenza
Answer:
when the vaccines should be administered during the year and cost and timeline of the development.
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The PACU is close to the surgical suites for ______ transfer of patients after surgery. postoperatively.
Answer: rapid
Explanation: hope this helps!
The PACU is close to the surgical suites for the rapid transfer of patients after surgery.
What is PACU?The Post Anesthesia Care Unit's mission is to make patients as comfortable as possible by managing their pain and preventing nausea. You will be attentively observed by a nurse who will check your vital signs throughout your stay in the PACU: Temperature.
Arterial pressure The post-anesthesia care unit is referred to as PACU. The stabilization of patients while undergoing continuing critical evaluation is the PACU's main goal.
The PACU nurse will transfer your family member to a hospital room or the Surgical Day Care (SDC) area once they have recovered from anesthesia. The patient's discharge from the PACU will be announced to the volunteer in the surgical waiting room, who will then let you know.
Therefore, for rapid patient transfers following surgery, the PACU is located close to the operating rooms.
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The medication comes as tablets containing 5 mg. The order is for 1.5 tablets. Calculate the number of mg to be given.
Answer:I’m pretty sure it’s (1500 mg)I’m not quite sure
Explanation:
9.Choose the correct statement about mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. It is spread by sexual transmission
B. The reservoirs are humans and animals
C. Disseminated disease mostly occurs in immunocompetent patients
D. Primary infection is pulmonary
Answer:
D Primary infection is pulmonary
Explanation:
explain addiction in terms of a shifting balance between positive and negative reward systems.
Addiction can be explained as a shifting balance between positive and negative reward systems.
Initially, the positive reward system dominates, as engaging in the addictive behavior provides pleasure or relief from negative emotions. However, over time, the negative reward system takes over, with withdrawal symptoms and negative consequences outweighing the positive effects, leading to a cycle of addiction to alleviate the negative effects.
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What is the importance of interlocking the fingers and rubbing while washing hands?
Answer:
it helps us clean the places that are hard to clean all at the same time while making suds to get rid of the dirt and dust that lies in the crevecas of your hands and interlocking the spreads the crevaces to get the dirt/dust out
Explanation:
Answer the statistical measures and create a box and whiskers plot for the following set of data.
6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, 11, 12, 17, 19
6,6,7,7,7,8,8,10,11,11,12,17,19
Min:
Q1:
Med:
Q3:
Max:
Create the box plot by dragging the lines:
Answer:
Explanation:
2,5,7,8,8, 10, 11, 12, 14, 14, 15, 16, 18, 18, 19
a heart attack usually results from which of the following
A heart attack usually results from a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscles caused by a buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries. This buildup, called atherosclerosis, narrows the arteries and reduces blood flow to the heart, leading to a heart attack.
Plaque is composed of cholesterol, fat, calcium, and other substances found in the blood. When the plaque ruptures, a blood clot forms around it, further blocking blood flow to the heart and causing a heart attack.In addition to atherosclerosis, other factors that can contribute to heart attacks include smoking, high blood pressure, diabetes, obesity, a family history of heart disease, and a sedentary lifestyle.
It is important to seek immediate medical attention if you suspect you are having a heart attack, as prompt treatment can reduce the damage to your heart and improve your chances of recovery.
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Type ________ diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.
Type 2 diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.
What is type 2 diabetes?Diabetes type 2 is a condition that affects the way in which the body controls and uses sugar (also known as glucose) as a fuel. Because of this illness that lasts for a long time (chronic), there is an excessive amount of sugar circulating in the bloodstream. In the long run, having high blood sugar levels can cause problems with the circulatory system, the nervous system, and the immune system.
Diabetes type 2 is primarily caused by two issues that are interrelated. The cells that make up muscle, fat, and the liver all become resistant to the effects of insulin. Due to the abnormal interaction that these cells have with insulin, they are unable to take in the required amount of sugar.
Diet, exercise, and the possible use of oral hypoglycemic drugs are the three components of an ideal treatment plan for type two diabetes. These components work together to help keep blood sugar levels under control.
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The patient underwent a single-contrast upper GI series on Tuesday. The request form noted severe esophageal burning daily for the past six weeks. The radiology impression was Barrett's esophagus.
Day of Encounter:
Diagnosis Code:
Procedure Code:
Answer:
In a patient underwent a single contrast upper GI series on Tuesday due to severe daily esophageal burning for six weeks, whose radiological diagnostic impression was Barrett's esophagus.
Day of encounter: Tuesday Diagnosis Code: K 22.7 (CIE-10 code for Barrett's Esophagus) Procedure Code: 74240Explanation:
Barrett's esophagus is a clinical condition characterized by a change in the esophageal epithelium due to repeated exposure to gastric juices, by reflux, or other mucosal irritants.
Corrosive agents are considered to produce a change in the epithelium called metaplasia, associated with symptoms of esophageal burning and pain.
The ICD-10 code for Barrett's esophagus is K 22.7.
The procedure, which consists of a radiological examination of the upper digestive tract with the use of barium contrast has a code of 74240, which describes this type of radiological examination.
Treatment discontinuation was significantly accelerated in which drug group/s compared with the reference group (efavirenz)? More than one choice may be correct.
a. Atazanavir
b. Lopinavir
c. Darunavir
d. Rilpivirine
e. Raltegravir
The drug group/s that showed significantly accelerated treatment discontinuation compared with the reference group (efavirenz) are Atazanavir, Darunavir, and Rilpivirine. The correct options are a,c, and d.
A study compared the discontinuation rates of different antiretroviral drug groups with efavirenz as the reference group. The study found that Atazanavir, Darunavir, and Rilpivirine had significantly accelerated treatment discontinuation compared with efavirenz, indicating that patients on these drug regimens were more likely to discontinue treatment than those on efavirenz.
Lopinavir and Raltegravir were not found to have significantly accelerated treatment discontinuation compared with efavirenz in this study.
Treatment discontinuation can be due to various reasons, such as adverse effects, poor efficacy, and patient preference. The reasons for treatment discontinuation were not specified in the study, and further research is needed to determine the specific factors that led to the higher rates of treatment discontinuation in the Atazanavir, Darunavir, and Rilpivirine groups.
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The terms color-blind and nontraditional have all been problematic terms to describe attempts to address diversity in.
When describing efforts to address cultural diversity, the labels color-blind and unconventional have all proved problematic.
What is a problematic example?Its adjective connotes toughness, difficulty in solving a problem, or even doubt. A star witness with a history of lying would be difficult, just as a flat tire in the midst of the desert would be.
What's an other word for problematic?Dubious, questionable, and uncertain are some popular synonyms for difficult. Despite the fact that all of these phrases refer to "not offering assurance of the worth, soundness, or certainty of anything," problematic is particularly applicable to things whose existence, purpose, fulfillment, or realization are extremely speculative.
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how is the thing kinda weird and
What are is the recommended criteria to avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement except?
A. Keep knees above hips
B. Never bend forward to pick up an object
C. Never cross your legs when seated
D. Keep knees apart at all times
To avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement, it is recommended to never bend forward to pick up an object. This is an important criterion to follow to maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduce the risk of dislocation.
To avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement, there are several recommended criteria to follow. The correct answer is B. Never bend forward to pick up an object.
Let's go through the other options and explain why they are recommended:
A. Keep knees above hips: This is a good practice as it helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and reduces the risk of dislocation. However, it is not the only criteria to avoid hip dislocation after total hip replacement.
C. Never cross your legs when seated: Crossing your legs can put stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid crossing your legs after a total hip replacement.
D. Keep knees apart at all times: Keeping the knees apart can help maintain stability in the hip joint and prevent dislocation. It is a good practice to follow, but it is not the exception in this case.
It is important to note that these recommendations may vary depending on the specific surgical technique used and the individual's unique situation. It is always best to consult with your surgeon or healthcare provider for specific guidelines tailored to your condition.
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The target of vaccines is the: a) Natural killer cells b) NADH c) Innate immune system d) Adaptive immune system e) Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate
Vaccines are designed to target the adaptive immune system.
Vaccines, in general, offer an inactive part of a harmful organism, such as a bacterium, to a immune system, triggering an immunological response and, as a result, the development of antibodies. If the pathogenic organism is met, the immune system will have an elevated immunological response.
Vaccines minimise the chance of contracting a disease by enhancing your body's natural defences. When you receive a vaccination, your immune system reacts. We now have vaccinations to prevent over 20 potentially fatal illnesses, allowing individuals of all ages to enjoy longer, healthier lives. Every year, vaccination avoids 3.5-5 million fatalities from illnesses such as diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, influenza, and measles.
Immunization is an essential component of primary health care and a basic human right. It's also one of the finest health investments you can make with your money. Vaccines are also important in preventing and controlling infectious disease outbreaks. They support global health security and they will be critical in the fight against antimicrobial resistance.
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