which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilators treatment are drugs that dilate (open) blood vessels. They have an effect on the muscles in the artery and vein walls, preventing them from tightening and narrowing.
What is Vasodilators?Vasodilators are drugs that dilate (open) blood vessels. They have an effect on the muscles in the artery and vein walls, preventing them from tightening and narrowing. As a result, blood flows through the vessels more easily. The heart does not have to work as hard to pump blood, which lowers blood pressure.The most potent vasodilator known is a novel neuropeptide derived from the calcitonin gene.Vasodilators are medications that dilate (widen) blood vessels, making it easier for blood to flow through them. Some have an immediate effect on the smooth muscle cells that line the blood vessels.Vasodilators are used to treat a variety of medical conditions, the most common of which is systemic hypertension.To learn more about vasodilator refer to :
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A narcotic analgesic tablet contains 5 mg of hydrocodone bitartrate and 500 mg of aspirin. How many grams of each ingredient needed to prepare 100 tablets?
Answer:
500 mg hydrocodone
5000 mg aspirin
Explanation:
1 tablet -> 5 mg hydrocodone
100 tablets ->x
x=(100 tablets * 5 mg hydrocodone)/1 tablet x=500 mg hydrocodone
1 tablet ->500 mg aspirin
100 tablets ->x
x=(100 tablets*500 mg aspirin)/1 tablet x=5000 mg aspirin
Where in the gastrointestinal track do drugs delivered orally have their highest absorption?
Answer: The small intestine
Explanation:
Megadoses of a form of ____ may be used to reduce elevated LDL cholesterol levels. -thiamin -pantothemic acid -vitamin k -niacin
Megadoses of niacin may be used to reduce elevated LDL cholesterol levels.
Niacin, also known as vitamin B3, is a water-soluble vitamin that can be used in high doses (megadoses) to lower LDL cholesterol levels.
Niacin has been shown to increase high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, commonly known as "good" cholesterol, while simultaneously reducing LDL cholesterol, often referred to as "bad" cholesterol.
This effect is beneficial for managing elevated cholesterol levels. However, it is important to note that using high-dose niacin for cholesterol management should be done under the supervision of a healthcare professional, as it can have side effects and interactions with other medications.
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What is the percent of a 1:25 (w/v) solution
Answer:
The percent of a 1:25 (w/v) solution is 4%.
Explanation:
19. All of the following are parts of a fear-free veterinary visit except which one?
O A. Minimal time in waiting room
O B. Discharge
O C. Boarding
O D. Calm exam room
which animal foods are high in carbonhydrate?
Answer:Dairy- This is the one animal food that contains carbohydrate. Milk, cheese, and yogurt contain naturally-occurring lactose. If dairy (like yogurt) is sweetened, then it will also contain added sugar like sucrose (white cane sugar) or fructose and glucose (honey and/or HFCS).
The main source of carbohydrates in livestock feed are grains such as oats, wheat, barley, corn, sorghum etc. forages and hay. Fats are an important part of the animal diet; nevertheless, they are needed in small amounts.
Which class of diuretic can decrease calcium in the body?
Explanation:
Thiazode Diuretics can decrease calcium in the body.a nurse is caring for a client with chronic bronchiectasis. the nurse should assess the client for what clinical manifestations?
The nurse should assess the client with chronic bronchiectasis for the clinical manifestation of a purulent cough, option (a) is correct.
Chronic bronchiectasis is characterized by abnormal dilation and thickening of the bronchi, leading to the accumulation of mucus and frequent infections. A purulent cough is a common symptom, indicating the presence of infection and the production of thick, yellow, or greenish sputum. In addition to a purulent cough, other clinical manifestations that the nurse should assess for in a client with chronic bronchiectasis include dyspnea, recurrent respiratory infections, hemoptysis, and fatigue.
These symptoms result from the impaired clearance of mucus and the chronic inflammation in the bronchi. The client may also exhibit signs of respiratory distress, such as wheezing and crackles on auscultation, option (a) is correct.
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The complete question is:
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic bronchiectasis. The nurse should assess the client for what clinical manifestations?
a. Purulent cough
b. Angina
c. Pigeon chest
d. Pulmonary hypertension
Is the Coronavirus genuine?
who needs to an immunization?
are covers removing free discourse?
Answer:
YES
Explanation:
Outbreaks of Ebola and other highly-contagious diseases often become epidemics in low-income countries because
Answer: Because they cannot not afford the medicine needed to treat the diseases and don't have the means to keep the diseases in one area
Explanation:
the outer protective layer of the eye, also known as the white of the eye, is called the
The outer protective layer of the eye, also known as the white of the eye, is called the sclera.
The sclera is a tough and fibrous tissue and it surrounds the entire eye. It starts from the cornea and extends all the way to the optic nerve. It provides protection to the eye and its internal structures, such as the lens and the retina.
The sclera is white in color due to the presence of collagen fibers and other proteins that reflect light. It also has a network of blood vessels that help to nourish the eye. The sclera is composed of several layers that are closely packed together.
The outermost layer is a tough, elastic and transparent layer of connective tissue called the episclera. The middle layer is a thick layer of collagen fibers and is known as the stroma. The innermost layer is a thin membrane called the membrana limitans interna.
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Why does my dwarf hamster keep having seizures and how do I fix it
Answer:
They probably want to be moved or placed somewhere else in your house they can get I guess bored kind of like dogs if they stay in the same place all day or for a long period of time.
Explanation:
this is what I’m assuming might be the reason.
preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).
Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons. List two
Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons such as:
Excessive therapy or diagnostic procedure Services that are reimbursable by other organizationsWhat are Ambulatory Surgical Centers for?Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASC) are modern health care facilities whose purpose is for providing surgical care on the same day as an incident which covers diagnostic and preventive procedures. Hospital owned outpatient facilities are an example of ASC.
For a procedure to be a non covered service, it would mean that the therapy or diagnostic procedure is excessive or that other organizations will reimburse the services.
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Alice is 10 years old and over the past few years has had several fractures even though she is not an active child. A recent blood test indicated that her alkaline phosphatase level was highly elevated. What diagnosis is possible with her history and lab values? What are some treatment options if your diagnosis is correct?
Answer:
Paget's Disease? Order physical therapy and possibly bisphosphonates
Explanation:
Answer:
This can be treated by Increase in her calcium level
Explanation:
This case shows that alice is experiencing decrease in her calcium level and it is what is leading to these fractures. It is what is causing the increasing alkaline phosphatase. To treat this, calcium carbonate and calcium citrates can be used. Also vitamin d can be used for treatment. SERM modulatotors can be used also as treatment.
What is the condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus
The condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus and into other areas of the body is called endometriosis.
What is the condition?Endometriosis condition can cause pain and discomfort, especially during menstrual periods.
Endometriosis can also lead to infertility in some cases. Treatment for endometriosis can include medication, surgery, or a combination of both, depending on the severity of the condition and the individual's symptoms.
Hence, this is the condition that is under study here.
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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom
Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.
What is adult safeguarding about?There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.
In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.
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what is the meaning sociology
Answer:
The study of the development, structure, and functioning of human society.
can behavior be considered sexual harassment if someone doesn't intend to be offensive, but another person takes offense
Answer: Sexual Harassment of a student interferes with a
student’s right to receive an education free from
discrimination.
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual
nature.
Sexual Harassment Can Be In the Form of:
Verbal Harassment
Non-Verbal Harassment
Physical Harassment
Explanation: •Federal law Title IX of the Education Amendments
of 1972 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex,
including sexual harassment in education
programs and activities.
Knowledge of sterilization procedures is a skill needed to work in
support services
O True
O False
T/F. a hapten is an antigen capable of stimulating antibody production
False. A hapten is not an antigen capable of stimulating antibody production on its own.
A hapten is a small molecule that cannot stimulate antibody production on its own, but can become antigenic when bound to a larger molecule. This larger molecule, which the hapten is bound to, is called a carrier molecule. The hapten-carrier complex can then stimulate an immune response and produce antibodies.
A hapten is a small molecule that, by itself, cannot stimulate the production of antibodies. However, when it binds to a larger protein (called a carrier molecule), the combined structure can act as an antigen and trigger an immune response. In this case, the hapten is considered an incomplete or partial antigen, as it requires the carrier molecule to be recognized by the immune system and initiate antibody production.
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1)What happens if you mix ammonia free Windex with bleach? Will is still create toxic fumes? 10pts
What does the medical assistant needs to do to help protect the provider against a lawsuit for abandonment?
Answer:
Details of the circumstance under which provider is withdrawing from case should be included in patient health record, the patient then should seek attention of another provider as soon as possible.
Explanation:
The medical assistant just needs to basically put in the details of the patient who denies the need of help and allow him/her to decide whether they want another, the doctor (provider) needs to keep accurate medical records of all exams, procedures, and counseling. Build functional, trusting relationships with their patient, and acquire medical malpractice insurance.
*not sure if any of it makes much sense but I hope it helps :) !
Discuss parenteral and enteral nutrition. Why would these sources of nutrition be utilized in the clinical setting
Answer:
Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function. Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function.
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Explanation:
Cefotaxime injection 1g tds×1/52..what is the total dose to be dispensed
Answer:
Give brainlist pls
Explanation:
Adults and children over 12 years in general receive 1 g Cefotaxime every 12 hours. In severe cases, the daily dose can be increased up to 12 g. Daily doses up ...
Testing
10 out of 100
ABC → CDF
10℉
7I
part a.
A somatic tremor artifact is occurring,
part b.
Renne should correct the problem by:
-help keep the patient relaxed and remind them not to move
-wait for a moment with least movement to do the tracing.
What is a somatic tremor artifact?A Somatic tremor artifact is describe as a choppy interference throughout the tracing is often caused by patient movement, even shivering.
If the artifact or interference is still present after Renne has performed the aforementioned adjustments , Renee may need to repeat the ECG or consult with a physician or specialist to determine the cause of the problem and appropriate corrective actions.
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Complete question:
Renee is performing an ECG on a patient. She notices many of the leads have jagged peaks with irregu- lar heights and spacing. What is occurring and how should she correct the problem?
An 8 kg child is prescribed azithromycin for community-acquired pneumonia. The prescription is for 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/dose once daily on days 2-5. Azithromycin is available as a 100 mg/5mL suspension. How many mLs will be required to complete the course?
The weight of the child is 8 kg, and the prescribed dosage of azithromycin is 10 mg/kg on day 1, followed by 5 mg/kg/day once daily on days 2-5. The total dose for day 1 would be:10 mg/kg × 8 kg = 80 mg. The dose for days 2-5 would be:5 mg/kg/day × 8 kg = 40 mg/day.
Therefore, the total dose for days 2-5 would be:40 mg/day × 4 days = 160 mg. The overall dose is:80 mg + 160 mg = 240 mg . One milliliter of the azithromycin suspension contains 100 mg of the drug. Therefore, to calculate how many mLs will be required to complete the course, divide the total dose by the concentration of the suspension:240 mg/100 mg per 5mL = 4.8 mL. The amount of Azithromycin suspension that will be required to complete the course is 4.8 mL.
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No they are not breathing. And they have no arms or legs … Where are they? You know what? If we come across somebody with no arms or legs, do we bother resuscitating them? I mean, what quality of life do we have there?
Answer:
YESSSSSS love the office
Explanation:
Which dental professional falls under category II of the Occupational Exposure Determine?
A. Dentist and hygienist
B. Dental assistant
C. Sterilization assistant and laboratory technician
D. Receptionist who might occasionally clean a treatment room or handle instruments or impressions
Option D: receptionist is the dental professional that falls under category II of the Occupational Exposure, who might occasionally clean a treatment room or handle instruments or impressions.
An administrative specialist who works in a dentist's office and manages office administration is a dental receptionist. Together with helping the doctor and dental assistants, they also take care of visitors to the office. A receptionist falls under the category I of the occupational exposure. Other professionals fall under category I.
A lot of people who work in the dental field run the risk of being exposed to various dangerous circumstances and chemicals. They are more likely to get hurt since they are not aware of the potential risks in the workplace. The references below provide assistance in identifying, managing, and preventing occupational dangers.
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