Honing and stropping are necessary for such implements as:

Deep learning has taken off for several reasons, including access to more computational power, significant theoretical advancements in convolutional neural networks (CNN), recurrent neural networks (RNN), and non-convex optimization, and access to more data.

Here is how each of the options contributes to the rise of deep learning:

1) We have access to a lot more computational power. Computing power has progressed significantly in the last decade, allowing for the development of deep learning algorithms. It is now possible to build neural networks with millions of parameters and train them in hours or days.

2) Neural Networks are a brand new field. Neural networks have been around for decades, but they only recently gained popularity as deep learning became more prevalent.

3) We have access to a lot more data. Deep learning algorithms need vast amounts of data to learn patterns. With the increase in the amount of data generated daily, it is now possible to train deep learning models on massive datasets.

4) There are some new significant theoretical understandings of CNN, RNN, and non-convex optimization. New theoretical results have shown why deep learning models work so well, providing a better understanding of the underlying mechanisms and helping to create more effective algorithms.

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Answer:

F = ma

=3kg × 6/ms2

=18 N

Explanation:

Since, force is the product of mass and acceleration.

The force applied to an object is

Explanation:

mass=3 kg,

Acceleration=6/ ms2

force=?

Given

force= mass x Acceleration

= 3kg x 6

=18kg N ans

Explanation:

I thought all of them are networking devices

The aliased frequency that is due to small sampling frequency is 675 Hz.

The proposed sampling frequency is 2f = 120

The signal frequency that is given in the question is 60Hz

The sampling frequency is 90Hz

a. Using Nyquist frequency,

fn = 0.5*90Hz = 45Hz

The aliased frequency =  |n*fn - fs|

aliased frequency = |n*fn - fs|

We have  n >= 1/Fs = 17ms

Then the aliased frequency is = 17 x 45 - 90

= 675 Hz

In order to avoid aliasing the sampling frequency, this has to be at least two times the highest frequency.

Therefore Fs =

2xF = 120Hz

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A) Oxidation occurs at the zinc electrode. B) The zinc electrode is the anode of the cell. C) The zinc electrode corrodes, as it is losing electrons to form ions, which dissolve into the solution.

An electrode is a conductor that is used to establish electrical contact with a non-metallic part of a circuit, such as an electrolyte, a gas, or a vacuum. An electrode is a solid metal or semiconductor material that is used to conduct electrons to or from a chemical reaction system.

D) The emf of the galvanic cell can be calculated using the equation: emf = E(cathode) - E(anode)

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A bend is defined as a change in the shape of the part between the damaged and undamaged area that is smooth and continuous.

What is a kink?

A kink can be defined as a sharp bend with a small radius over a short distance.

So when any part is kinked it must be replaced without any doubt. A part is kinked if it just doesn't work on the repair.

What is a bend?

Unlike a kink, a bend can be restored. That is after a bend also  a part can be bought back to its original position.

When the part is straightened, it is returned to proper shape and state without any areas of permanent deformation.

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The given information is;Two coils connected in series-aiding fashion have a total inductance of 500mH.

1.When connected in a series-opposing configuration, the coils have a total inductance of 300mH.

2.If the inductance of one coil (Li) is three times the other, we are to find L, L2, M, and the coupling coefficient.Let's consider the two coils L1 and L2, where L1 is three times L2.

3.Let the mutual inductance between L1 and L2 be M.When the two coils are connected in a series-aiding configuration, the equivalent inductance is given by:Leq = L1 + L2 + 2ML1 = 3L2Thus,Leq = 3L2 + L2 + 2M= 4L2 + 2M = 500 mHAgain, when the two coils are connected in a series-opposing configuration, the equivalent inductance is given by:Leq = L1 + L2 - 2MLeq = 3L2 + L2 - 2M= 4L2 - 2M = 300 mHSolving the above two equations, we get;4L2 + 2M = 500.... (1)4L2 - 2M = 300.... (2)Solving the above equations, we can find the value of L2 and M.L2 = 50 mHM = 75 mHSubstituting the value of L2 and M in equation (1), we can find the value of L1.L1 = 150 mHSo, L1 = 150 mHL2 = 50 mHM = 75 mHThe coupling coefficient, k can be given as;k = M/√(L1L2)Therefore,k = 75 / √(150 × 50)k = 0.5Hence, the value of the coupling coefficient is 0.5.

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The couple of the moment of the two forces is 3.82 N.m

We are given;

Force applied at A; F_a = 62 N

Force applied at C; F_c = 62 N

AB = BC = 200 mm = 0.2 m

Horizontal component of  F_a is; F_ax = 62 cos 50

Vertical component of  F_a is; F_ay = 62 sin 50

Horizontal component of  F_c is; F_cx = 62 cos 50

Vertical component of  F_c is; F_cy = 62 sin 50

Taking moments about point C gives;

M_c = F_ay * AB - F_ax * BC

M_c = (62 sin 50 * 0.2) - (62 cos 50 * 0.2)

M_c = 23.75 - 19.93

M_c = 3.82 N.m

Thus, the couple of the moment of the two forces is 3.82 N.m

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Answer:

c +5

Explanation:

we have difference in energy =

2.18x10⁻¹⁸ x z² / n²

now n = 1

amount of energy absorbed Δdelta = 7.84×10−17 J

7.84×10⁻¹⁷ = 2.18x10⁻¹⁸ x z²

we divide through by 2.18x10⁻¹⁸

z² = 7.84×10⁻¹⁷ / 2.18x10⁻¹⁸

z² = 35.9633

z = √35.9633

z = 5.9969

≈ 6

charge = atomic number 6 - number of electrons available in the element 1

= 6-1 = 5

from the calculations above, the charge of the one electron specie would be c +5

Data and insight is the component of the enterprise platform will help the company capture customer information.

These are the data and knowledge gotten from analysis of customer's information in a business.

This enterprise platform is very important as it helps the organization to improve their services

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Z≤ -4.852 ft, Maximum efficiency is η≅ 0.88 ≅ 88% is the maximum discharge possible

Solution

Given Data:-

D = 14.62in, N = 2134 rc/min, T=20°C. At T= 20°C ɣ=ρg= 62.35 lb/ft³, vapor pressure. Pv = 49.2 lb/ft².

The efficienies at each flow rate is computal by using formula

η = ρgθH / (550) (bhp)

→ As we can See the maximum efficiency point is at θ = 6ft³/s (close to 6ft³/s)

Maximum efficiency is η≅ 0.88 ≅ 88%

b) Given NPSHR = 16 ft,hg=22ft. Zactual. = 9ft  (below the sea surface)

To avoid cavitation NPSH < Pa - Pv/ρg - Z - hf

Z < Pa - Pv/ρg - hf

Z < 2116 - 49.2/62.35 - 16 - 22 [1 atm = 2116 lb/ft2]

Z≤ -4.852 ft

-> Keeping the pump 9 ft below the surface gives 4.148 ft of marign against cavitation.

Hence it is Sufficient to avoid cavitation.

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Explanation:

Ohm's law applies: V = IR, and variations. The current in a series circuit is the same through every element. That current is given as 1.1 A.

Rt = (8 V)/I3 = (8 V)/(1.1 A) = 80/11 Ω = 7 3/11 Ω

R3 = Rt -R1 -R2 = 7 3/11 -2 -5 = 3/11 Ω

It = I3 = 1.1 A

I1 = I2 = I3 = 1.1 A

V1 = (I1)(R1) = (1.1 A)(2 Ω) = 2.2 V

V2 = (I2)(R2) = (1.1 A)(5 Ω) = 5.5 V

V3 = (I3)(R3) = (1.1 A)(7/11 Ω) = 0.3 V

Using the Newton's second law of motion we will see that the acceleration is  0.0875 m/s^2.

The acceleration of a vehicle is determined by the force acting on it and its mass, as described by Newton's second law of motion:

F = m * a

where F is the force acting on the object, m is the mass of the object, and a is the resulting acceleration.

In this case, the force acting on the vehicle is 0.07 N, and the mass of the vehicle is 0.8 kg. Substituting these values into the equation above, we get:

0.07 N = 0.8 kg * a

Solving for a, we get:

a = 0.07 N / 0.8 kg

a = 0.0875 m/s^2

Therefore, the acceleration of the 0.8 kg vehicle powered by 0.07 N of force is 0.0875 m/s^2.

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The given information in the question is as follows:

NA= 0.48k,

= 0.6k₂

= 1

Now, the formula for the minimum line width is given as follows:

Minimum line width = k₁λ/NA

where, k₁ = 0.6λ = wavelength

NA = numerical aperture

So, putting the given values in the above equation, we get:

Minimum line width

= (0.6 × λ)/0.48

= (5/4) × (k₁λ/NA)

= (5/4) × (0.6λ/0.48)

Minimum line width = 0.938 μm

Now, the formula for the depth of focus (DOF) is given as follows:

DOF = k₂λ/NA²

where, k₂ = 1λ = wavelength

NA = numerical aperture

So, putting the given values in the above equation, we get:

DOF = λ/NA²

DOF = λ/(0.48)²

DOF = 3.52 μm

Thus, the minimum line width is 0.938 μm and the depth of focus is 3.52 μm.

This wavelength is not suitable for current CMOS trends as the minimum line width required for current CMOS trends is much smaller than this value.

However, it is suitable for MEMS technology where the minimum feature size is generally larger than in CMOS technology.

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Answer:

C) Skull and crossbones

Explanation:

Its on the OSHA website under HCS Pictograms and Hazards

Answer:

40.7465 \(ft^2\)

Explanation:

The first step for solving this problem is to convert the units from gallons to cubic feet and from millimeters to cubic feet:

1 gallon = 0.133681 cubic feet

10 mm = 0.001 m = 0.0032808 ft

The second step is to divide the volume (the gallon of paint) by the coat thickness. This returns the area.

\(A = \frac{Volume}{thickness}=\frac{0.133681ft^3}{0.0032808ft}=40.7465 ft^2\)

This is the approximate area that the gallon of paint will be able to cover.

Answer:

1. observational

2. clinical trial

*3. meta analysis*

Explanation:

Hopefully this is correct but if its not I apoligize

Answer:

The appropriate answer is "0.0043".

Explanation:

The given values is:

Error probability,

p = 0.01

Received digits,

n = 10

and,

\(x\sim Binomial\)

As we know,

⇒  \(P(x)=\binom{n}{x}p^xq^{n-x}\)

Now,

⇒  \(P(x >1) =1- \left \{ P(x=0)+P(x=1) \right \}\)

⇒                 \(=1-\left \{\binom{10}{0}(0.01)^0(0.99)^{10-0}+\binom{10}{0}(0.01)^1(0.99)^{10-1} \right \}\)

⇒                 \(=1-0.9957\)

⇒                 \(=0.0043\)

Answer:

amen?...............

Genetic algorithms B: develop solutions to particular problems using inheritance, crossover, and mutation, as well as C: represent knowledge as groups of characteristics, also they E: seek to emulate a human expert's way of solving problems.

Genetic algorithms are a problem-solving approach inspired by the process of natural selection in evolution. They work by generating a population of potential solutions represented as chromosomes with characteristics. These characteristics are combined through techniques like inheritance, crossover, and mutation to create new generations of solutions. T

he algorithm aims to improve the solutions over time through fitness evaluation and selection. Genetic algorithms are designed to simulate the process of evolution and mimic the problem-solving capabilities of human experts rather than being based on strict logic. Therefore, the correct answer is that genetic algorithms develop solutions to particular problems using inheritance, crossover, and mutation (Option B, C nad E).

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The maximum velocity (u_max) in the parabolic laminar flow is 12 cm/s.

In the problem statement, it is given that the incompressible steady flow is uniform with u = U0 = 8 cm/s in the inlet.

Downstream, the flow develops into a parabolic laminar profile with u = az(z0 - z). The fluid is SAE 30 oil at 20°C, and z0 = 4 cm.

First, we need to find the dynamic viscosity of SAE 30 oil at 20°C. SAE 30 oil has a kinematic viscosity (ν) of approximately 300 cSt (centistokes) at 20°C.

To convert this to dynamic viscosity (μ), we need to multiply by the density (ρ) of the oil:

μ = ν * ρ

The density of SAE 30 oil is approximately 0.89 g/cm³ (890 kg/m³). Since 1 cSt is equal to 1 × 10⁻⁶ m²/s, the kinematic viscosity in SI units is 300 × 10⁻⁶ m²/s.

Now, let's convert the density to SI units:

ρ = 890 kg/m³ = 0.89 g/cm³

Thus, the dynamic viscosity (μ) can be calculated as follows:

μ = (300 × 10⁻⁶ m²/s) * (890 kg/m³) = 0.267 kg/(m*s)

Now, we need to find the maximum velocity (u_max) in the parabolic laminar flow, which occurs at the center of the plates (z = z0/2):

u_max = a * z0/2 * (z0 - z0/2)

Since the flow is incompressible, the mass flow rate (Q) remains constant throughout. We can equate the mass flow rate at the uniform flow (Q_inlet) with the mass flow rate at the parabolic flow (Q_parabolic):

Q_inlet = Q_parabolic

ρ * U0 * A_inlet = ∫[ρ * a * z * (z0 - z) * A_parabolic] dz

The area A_inlet and A_parabolic both can be represented as A = b * z, where b is the width of the parallel plates, and z is the distance between the plates.

Therefore, the equation simplifies to:

U0 * b * z0 = ∫[a * z * (z0 - z) * b] dz, with integration limits 0 to z0

U0 * z0 = ∫[a * z * (z0 - z)] dz, with integration limits 0 to z0

8 cm/s * 4 cm = a * ∫[z * (4 cm - z)] dz, with integration limits 0 to 4 cm

32 cm²/s = a * ∫[4z - z²] dz, with integration limits 0 to 4 cm

Now we can integrate and apply the limits:

32 cm²/s = a * [2z² - (1/3)z³] | (0 to 4 cm)

32 cm²/s = a * [(2 * 4² - (1/3) * 4³) - 0]

32 cm²/s = a * (32 - 64/3)

32 cm²/s = a * (32 - 21.33)

32 cm²/s = a * 10.67 cm²

Now we can solve for 'a':

a = 32 cm²/s / 10.67 cm² = 3 cm/s

Finally, we can find the maximum velocity (u_max) at the center of the plates

Now that we have the value of 'a' (3 cm/s), we can find the maximum velocity (u_max) at the center of the plates (z = z0/2):

u_max = a * z0/2 * (z0 - z0/2)

u_max = 3 cm/s * (4 cm)/2 * (4 cm - 4 cm/2)

u_max = 3 cm/s * 2 cm * 2 cm

u_max = 12 cm/s

Thus, the maximum velocity (u_max) in the parabolic laminar flow is 12 cm/s.

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Answer:

- 46.5171kW

Explanation:

FIrst, the value given:

P1 = 1.05 bar (Initial pressure)

P2 = 12 bar (final pressure)

Heat transfer, Q = - 3.5 kW (It is negative because the compressor losses heat to the surroundings)

Mgaseous nitrogen = Mair = 28.0134 Kg/mol (constant)

Universal gas constant, Ru = 8.3143 Kj/Kgmolk

Specific gas constant, R = 0.28699 Kj/KgK

Initial temperature, T1 = 300 K

Final temperature, T2 = 400 K

Finding the volume:

P1V1 = RT1

V1 = RT1 ÷ P1

= (0.28699 Kj/KgK X 300k) ÷ 105

Note convert bar to Kj/Nm by multiply it by 100

V1 =  0.81997 m3/Kg

To get the mass flow rate:

m = volumetric flow rate / V1

= (21 m3/min x 1/60seconds) ÷ 0.81997 m3/Kg

= 0.4268Kg/s

Using tables for the enthalpy,

hT1 = 300.19 KJ/Kg

hT2 = 400.98 KJ/Kg

The enthalpy change = hT2 - hT1

= 100.79 KJ/Kg

Power, P = Q - (m X enthalpy change)

= - 3.5 - (0.4268 X 100.79)

= - 46.5171kW

The code  that Descript the Credit card companies and banks use built-in security measures when creating the account numbers on credit cards is given in the code attached

The changes that were made in the code are:

So, With these changes, the code ought to presently accurately confirm the credit card number agreeing to the given rules.

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1. The equivalent capacitance between terminals a-c is 2.4 μF

2. The equivalent capacitance between terminals b-c is 6μF

3. The equivalent capacitance between terminals c-d is 12 μF

Capacitance is the ability for a device to store charge

Given that the capacitance bewteen terminals a-c = a-b + b-c

Now, the capacitance between terminals b-c are in parallel.

So, for capacitances in parallel, we add their capacitances to get the equvalent capacitance.

So, the equivalent capapcitance between b-c is C = 1 μF + 2μF + 3µF = 6μF

Now C is in series with the capapcitance between terminals a-b.

Since they are in series, their equivalent capapcitance C' is

1/C' = 1/4μF + 1/C

= 1/4μF + 1/6μF

= (3 + 2)/12 μF

1/C' = 5/12 μF

C' = 12/5 μF

= 2.4 μF

So, the equivalent capacitance between terminals a-c is 2.4 μF

To find the equivalent capacitance between terminals b-c, we see that the capacitance between terminals b-c are in parallel.

So, for capacitances in parallel, we add their capacitances to get the equvalent capacitance.

So, the equivalent capapcitance between b-c is C = 1 μF + 2μF + 3µF = 6μF

So, the equivalent capacitance between terminals b-c is 6μF

Since there is only one capacitor between terminals c-d, the equivalent capacitance is equal to the value of that capacitor which is 12 μF

So, the equivalent capacitance between terminals c-d is 12 μF

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Answer:

Hence the given statement is false.

Explanation:

For low-speed subsonic wind tunnels, the air density remains nearly constant decreasing the cross-section area cause the flow to extend velocity, and reduce pressure. Similarly increasing the world cause to decrease and therefore the pressure to extend.

The speed within the test section is decided by the planning of the tunnel.  

Thus by adjusting the pressure difference won't change the worth of test section velocity.

Answer:

The given statement is false .

Answer: The transition from product to process oriented development in software engineering is a shift from a project management mindset to a product-oriented approach. This approach defines success according to the areas that truly matter to users and design software that delights and engages their customers.

Explanation: In the traditional project management mindset, software development is treated as a one-time project with a defined scope, budget, and timeline. The focus is on delivering the project on time and within budget, rather than on creating a product that meets the needs of users. This approach can lead to software that is delivered on time and within budget, but does not meet the needs of users.

In contrast, the product-oriented approach focuses on creating software that delights and engages users. The goal is to create a product that meets the needs of users, rather than just delivering a project on time and within budget. This approach involves continuous improvement and iteration based on user feedback.

The transition from product to process oriented development involves several changes in how software is developed. First, there is a shift from a project-based approach to a product-based approach. Second, there is an increased focus on user needs and feedback. Third, there is an increased emphasis on continuous improvement and iteration.

Overall, the transition from product to process oriented development can lead to better software that meets the needs of users. However, it can also be more challenging than traditional project management approaches because it requires more flexibility and adaptability.

Hope this helps, and have a great day!

Answer:

Answer is. (d) all of the above

Answer:

my answer is D

Explanation:

all of the above

Answer:

The answer is "\(\bold{9.09\times 10^6 \frac{kg}{hour}}\)".

Explanation:

For the reference table we get:

\(h1 = 2410 \frac{kJ}{kg} \ , at \ \ \\\\ \ P = 0.08 \ bar \ and \ \ quality = 0.932\)

Through steam tables, they get:

\(\ h2 = 173.9 \frac{kJ}{kg} \ on\\\\ \ P = 0.08 \ bars \ \ \ but \ quality = 0 (sat.liquid),\)

Water power transfer = \(\ 3.4 \times 10 ^ 5 \times (2410-173.9)\\\)

It should be comparable to the water enthalpy:

\(m_{water}\times Cp\times (T2-T1)\\\\For \ eg:\\\\ = 3.4 \times 10 ^ 5\times (2410-173.9) \\\\ = m_{water}\times4.18\times(35-15)\\\)  

\(m_{water}=9.09\times 10^6 \frac{kg}{hour}\)

Answer:

International Film Festival

Judging the best best film:

a. The probability that out of five judges (random sample),  three are in favor of film FA is:

= 33%.

b. The demerits of classical probability are:

1. Classical probability can only be used with events that have definite numbers of possible outcomes.  

2. Classical probability can only handle events where each outcome is equally likely.

3. Classical probability is based on the assumption of linear relationship (which is not always true in real life) between the latent variable and observed scores.

Explanation:

a) Number of judges = 11

Number of judges in favor of FA film = 6

Number of judges in favor of FB film = 5

Probability of judges in favor of FA film = 6/11

Probability of judges in favor of FB film = 5/11

Random sample of judges = 5

Probability that out of five judges, three are in favor of film FA = 3/5 * 6/11

= 18/55

= 33%

b) Classical probability is the simple probability showing that each event has equal chance of happening.  It can be contrasted with empirical probability that is obtained from experiments.