The classes of carbohydrates are:
monosaccharides disaccharidespolysaccharidesCorrect answers are A, C, D.
What are carbohydrates?Carbohydrates are biomolecules which are composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, where the hydrogen and oxygen in the compounds are in a ratio of 2 : 1.
The classes of carbohydrates in include:
monosaccharides or simple sugars e.g. glucosedisaccharides - contains two simple sugars e.g. maltosepolysaccharides - contains monomers of simple sugars e.g. starchIn conclusion, carbohydrates are essential biomolecules.
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Cassey uses a wheelchair and wants to get to the top of the stage shown in the picture. The stage is 2 meters off the ground. She has the option of using two ramps. Ramp X is 7 meters long and ramp Y is 3 meters long.
Name the two parts of the pectorial muscles.
Explanation:
Pectoralis muscle, any of the muscles that connect the front walls of the chest with the bones of the upper arm and shoulder.
There are two such muscles on each side of the sternum (breastbone) in the human body:1. pectoralis major and
2. pectoralis minor.
an organism that has two different alleles of a given gene has a(n) _____ genotype.
an organism that has two different alleles of a given gene has a(n) heterozygous genotype.
What is alleles?Alleles are different forms of the same gene located at the same position on a chromosome. Alleles contain alternative versions of the same gene, which can lead to different traits. Alleles can be dominant, meaning the trait is more likely to be expressed, or recessive, meaning the trait is less likely to be expressed. Alleles can also be homozygous, meaning both alleles are the same, or heterozygous, meaning the two alleles are different. When an organism has two different alleles for a trait, it will express the dominant allele. Alleles are important in understanding genetic inheritance and the variation of traits within a population. Alleles can cause genetic diseases, such as cystic fibrosis or Huntington's disease, if a person inherits two recessive alleles.
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The angle at which the Sun's rays hit the Earth is called their
O Right Angle Concurrence
O Solar Incidence
O Sun Theory
Which phenomenon is most likely to lead to an increase in the rate that pseudogenes evolve?
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
a. A decreased point mutation rate
b. More intense purifying selection
c. An increased rate of gene duplication
d. Less intense positive selection
e. A decreased rate of gene duplication
all the alleles present in all individuals in a species are referred to as the _____ of that species.
All the alleles present in all individuals in a species are referred to as the gene pool of that species.
In the field of population genetics, the gene pool is the total set of genes and their variations that exist within a population of a particular species. The gene pool includes both dominant and recessive alleles and all of the various genotypes that can be produced from them.Gene pool can vary from one population to another, and they can change over time within a population due to various factors such as natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, mutation, and other factors.
The size and diversity of the gene pool are crucial to the survival and evolution of a species. A larger gene pool provides a greater potential for genetic variation and adaptability to changing environmental conditions. In contrast, a smaller gene pool may reduce the ability of a population to adapt to new challenges and increase the risk of genetic diseases and other issues. So therefore gene pool is all the alleles present in all individuals in a species of that species.
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What notation would you use to characterize Patient B's
karyotype?
This is patient b on the karyotyping activity
To characterize Patient B's karyotype, I would use the International System for Human Cytogenetic Nomenclature (ISCN).
Begin by obtaining a sample of the patient's chromosomes from nucleated cells in their blood. This can be done through a blood draw or other suitable methods.
Prepare the chromosomes for analysis by staining them to create a banding pattern. This pattern helps in identifying and distinguishing individual chromosomes.
Examine the stained chromosomes under a microscope and capture high-resolution images of the metaphase spread. This ensures clear visualization of each chromosome.
Analyze the chromosome images and identify any structural abnormalities, such as deletions, duplications, inversions, or translocations. Pay close attention to the sex chromosomes, as abnormalities in these can be relevant to the patient's infertility.
Determine the number of chromosomes present in the patient's karyotype. In a normal human karyotype, there are 46 chromosomes, including 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
Assign a karyotype designation to the patient based on the observed chromosome abnormalities. This involves using the International System for Human Cytogenetic Nomenclature (ISCN), which provides a standardized notation for describing chromosomal variations.
Document the patient's karyotype using the ISCN notation, indicating the specific abnormalities observed and their locations on the chromosomes.
Interpret the findings of the karyotype analysis in the context of the patient's infertility. Consult with a geneticist or reproductive specialist to determine if the identified chromosomal abnormalities could be contributing to the patient's condition.
Communicate the results and implications of the karyotype analysis to the patient and collaborate on further steps, such as additional genetic testing or fertility treatments, as appropriate.
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The probable question may be: What notation would you use to characterize Patient B's karyotype?
Patient B is a 28-year-old male who is trying to identify a cause for his infertility. Chromosomes were abtained from nucicated cells in the patient's blood. Complete Paticot I's Karyoryne
based on the information above, which of these would most likely be affected by a global warming?
Polar bear living on the ice sea.
Several kinds of specialized cells work together to create the sense of hearing. Hair-shaped cells sense vibrations and nerve cells send signals to the brain. Structural cells hold the hair cells in place. No matter their specialty, which functions must all cells perform to survive? Choose the three statements that apply.
Answer:
The correct answer is -
bringing in nutrients and water,
getting rid of wastes, and
obtaining energy.
Explanation:
All cells no matter what type of cell they are or their specialty, they need to bring water and nutrients to work properly and survive. These cells also need to remove cellular waste to prevent toxicity in the cell. All the toxic material or metabolic waste must be removed from the cells.
All the cells of the bodu=y including hair-shaped cells or structural cells all required energy to perform their function therefore obtaining energy is one of essential function cell need to be performed.
Which tatement bet decribe how enzyme function in the body?
Group of anwer choice
Enzyme lower the activation energy of reaction
Enzyme are converted into product by the reaction they catalyze
One enzyme can catalyze many different reaction
An enzyme i ued once and then detroyed by the cell
The statement which best describes how enzyme function in the body is Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction.
Enzymes are essential components found in living things. Enzymes play a huge role in our bodies; from making ATP to processing our food, proteins assume a crucial part in keeping us alive.
Proteins that accelerate chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy of a reaction are known as enzymes. During the reaction, enzymes are not used up, but they can be used again.
Because enzymes are specific, the substrate on which they operate is also specific. They are not generally working on any substrate that is available.
Additionally, enzymes operate best in a specific temperature and pH range. This reach differs from one chemical to another.
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(complete question)
Which statement best describes how enzyme function in the body?
Group of answer choice
Enzyme lower the activation energy of reaction
Enzyme are converted into product by the reaction they catalyze
One enzyme can catalyze many different reaction
An enzyme i ued once and then detroyed by the cell
Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems?
Tremors
Sleepiness
Trapped air in the lungs
Decreased heart rate
The possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems could be tremors.
Inhalers are commonly prescribed for respiratory problems such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and bronchitis. These inhalers usually contain bronchodilators, which relax the muscles around the airways and open them up to allow more air into the lungs. However, bronchodilators can also affect other parts of the body, causing side effects.
One possible side effect of inhalers is tremors. Tremors are involuntary shaking or trembling movements of the body, which can affect the hands, arms, legs, or other parts of the body. This side effect is more common with inhalers that contain short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs), such as albuterol, which are used to quickly relieve asthma symptoms.
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Is water alive or not alive explain
Answer:
it is not if you think it is it isn't
Explanation:
the water cycle
What is the structure of prokaryotic chromosomes?
(a) circular DNA tightly wrapped around histones
(b) circular DNA with no histones
(c) long, linear DNA with no histones
(d) long, linear DNA tightly wrapped around histones
The structure of prokaryotic chromosomes is circular DNA tightly wound around histones.
What is the structure of DNA in prokaryotes?Chromosomes have a basic structure: a DNA molecule that has portions wrapped in grains formed by eight molecules of a protein called histone. Each histone grain with coiled DNA is called a nucleosome.
What is the function of the chromosome?A chromosome can be demarcated along its length into thousands of regions called genes. The function of chromosomes is to control cell functions. In addition, they carry an individual's genetic information through genes.
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The diagram summarizes the events of the light reactions.
Energy is transferred from pigment to pigment inside of photosystem II when light is absorbed by one of the numerous pigments inside.
What is Photosystem?This process continues until the reaction center is reached. An electron's energy is raised there, where it is transmitted to P680. An acceptor molecule receives the high-energy electron, which is then exchanged for an electron from water.
We breathe in by saying O 2 start text, O, stop text, start subscript, 2, and end subscript synthesis of ATP. As it moves through an electron transport chain, the high-energy electron expends energy.
H, end text, start superscript, plus, end superscript ions are pumped into the nucleus from the stroma by some of the energy generated.
Therefore, Energy is transferred from pigment to pigment inside of photosystem II when light is absorbed by one of the numerous pigments inside.
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what organelle of a cell connect the nucleus and cell membrane of the cell?
Answer:
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation:
I hope this helps!
Answer:
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation:
have a nice day
What happens in meiosis during telephase I
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Name two types of fluids
found
in female reproductive
Organs
Answer:
A female's internal reproductive organs are the vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. The vagina is a muscular, hollow tube that extends from the vaginal opening to the uterus. Because it has muscular walls, the vagina can expand and contract.
Explanation:
Welcome!
Answer:
The oviduct and uterus provide the environments for the earliest stages of mammalian embryo development. However, little is known about the mechanisms that underlie the formation of oviduct and uterine fluids, or the extent to which the supply of nutrients via these reproductive tract tissues matches the nutrient requirements of early embryos. After reviewing our limited knowledge of these phenomena, a new experimental paradigm is proposed in which the epithelia lining the endosalpinx and endometrium are seen as the final components in a supply line that links maternal diet at one end and embryo uptake of nutrients at the other. When considered in this way, the oviduct and uterine epithelia become, for a few days, potentially the most critical maternal tissues in the establishment of a healthy pregnancy. In fulfilling this 'gatekeeper' role, female reproductive tract fluids have a key role in the 'developmental origins of health and disease' concept.
Explanation i made it because it a weird question
assuming there are no heteroplasmic individuals but that people from different families have different dna, how many different mitochondrial dnas are there in this entire pedigree?
There will be total of 5 DNA different mitochondrial DNA in the entire pedigree if we assume that there is no heteroblastic individuals.
Hundreds to thousands of mitochondria are found in the fluid that surrounds the nucleus in each cell (the cytoplasm). Although the majority of DNA is contained in chromosomes within the nucleus, mitochondria do have some of their own DNA. This genetic material is referred to as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA).
There will be 5 mitochondrial DNA if there are no heteroplasmic individuals however persons from different families have distinct dna.
The occurrence of more than one mtDNA type in one individual is referred to as heteroplasmy (Melton 2004). Two or more mtDNA populations can coexist inside an individual's cells, within a single cell, or within a single mitochondrion.
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An example of coevolution would be _____.
Select one:
a. the evolution of wings in bats and birds
b. the toad and the flies they eat
c. the hummingbird and the tubular flower it pollinates
d. all of the above
Answer:
c. the hummingbird and the tubular flower it pollinates
right now humans are making more co2 faster than _______ can absorb it.
have you ever heard of something called a p l a n t?
A bacterial culture was diluted and results from duplicate plates were obtained as indicated below. What was the number of colony-forming units/ ml of the original culture? Ten grams of hamburger were added to 90 ml of sterile buffer. This was mixed well in a blender. One-tenth of a ml of this slurry was added to 9.9 ml of sterile buffer. After thorough mixing, this suspension was further diluted by successive 1/100 and 1/10 dilutions. One-tenth of a ml of this final dilution was plated onto Plate Count Agar. After incubation, 52 colonies were present. How many colony-forming units were present in the total 10 gram sample of hamburger?
The number of colony-forming units/ ml of the original culture in the given bacterial culture was 5.2 × 10¹¹ CFU/mL of the original culture.
The following steps are to be followed according to the question:
-Ten grams of hamburger were added to 90 ml of sterile buffer.
-This was mixed well in a blender.
-One-tenth of a ml of this slurry was added to 9.9 ml of sterile buffer.
-After thorough mixing, this suspension was further diluted by successive 1/100 and 1/10 dilutions.
-One-tenth of a ml of this final dilution was plated onto Plate Count Agar.
-After incubation, 52 colonies were present.
-To determine the number of colony-forming units (CFU) in the original 10-gram sample of hamburger,
Following formula will be used:
N = (n × F)/V
where,
N is the number of CFU per mL of the original culture.
n is the number of colonies on the plate.
F is the reciprocal of the dilution used.
V is the volume of the culture that was plated in mL.
For the first dilution of the sample,
V = 0.1 mL,
F = 10,
so, N1 = (52 × 10)/0.1
= 52 × 100 = 5200 CFU/mL.
Each 1/10 dilution reduced the CFU by a factor of 10
and three 1/10 dilutions were made.
Therefore,
the total dilution factor is 10 × 10 × 10 = 1000.
For this final dilution of the sample,
V = 0.1 mL
F = 1000
so, N2 = (1 × 1000)/0.1
= 10000 CFU/mL.
The total number of CFUs in the original 10-gram sample = N2 x the total volume of the culture
which is,
0.1 mL × 1000 = 100 mL.
Thus,
1 × 10^4 CFU/mL × 100 mL
= 1 × 10^6 CFU in the original 10-gram sample.
Therefore, the number of colony-forming units/ ml of the original culture in the given bacterial culture was 5.2 × 10¹¹ CFU/mL of the original culture.
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20. complete the sentence with the best option provided below. the secondary structures of a protein are the a) regular, repeated folds present in a lowest energy conformation. b) temporary, unstable protein folding conformations. c) interactions between polar amino acid side chains. d) chemical modifications of amino acid side chains.
The secondary structures of a protein are the Regular, repeated folds present in a lowest energy conformation. Thus the correct option d)
The local spatial conformation of the polypeptide backbone without the side chains is referred to as protein secondary structure. Alpha helices and beta sheets are the two secondary structural components that are most frequently seen, while beta twists and omega loops also happen. Before the protein folds into its three dimensional tertiary structure, secondary structure components generally spontaneously develop as an intermediate.
The arrangement of hydrogen bonds between the amino hydrogen and carboxyl oxygen atoms in the peptide backbone serves as the formal definition of secondary structure. It is also possible to define secondary structure without consideration to hydrogen bonds by looking at the predictable distribution of backbone dihedral angles in a given area of the Ramachandran plot.
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Full Question: Complete the sentence with the best option provided below. The secondary structures of a protein are the
A. temporary, unstable protein folding conformations.
B. chemical modifications of amino acid side chains.
C. interactions between polar amino acid side chains.
D. regular, repeated folds present in a lowest energy conformation.
explain the processs of combustion
Answer:
Combustion is a chemical process in which a substance reacts rapidly with oxygen and gives off heat. The original substance is called the fuel, and the source of oxygen is called the oxidizer. The fuel can be a solid, liquid, or gas, although for airplane propulsion the fuel is usually a liquid.
Explanation:
hii pls help i’ll give brainliest
Answer:
They are unequal and act in the same direction. Also Reminder to be happy, go drink some water, eat some food and relax! You are loved :) <3
Explanation:
What are the 4 parts of the DNA strand?
The four parts of the DNA strand are hydrogen bonds, nitrogenous bases, a phosphate group and a pentose sugar.
The double helical structure of DNA is composed of nucleotides held by phosphodiester linkages. Each nuceotide in DNA is composed of a pentose sugar called deoxyribose, four nitrogenous bases -adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine, and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous bases in DNA molecules are held by hydrogen bonds. The double strands of the DNA molecule are twisted around each other on a common axis to form a helix that closely resembles a ladder.
The pairing of bases is said to be complementary in nature. This means that adenine is paired with thymine by double hydrogen bonds, and guanine is paired with cytosine by triple hydrogen bonds. This complementary pairing of nitrogenous bases is in accordance with the Chargaff's rule.
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Which part of an angiosperm contains seeds?
leaf
fruit
spore
pine cone
Answer:
fruit
Explanation:
The formation of which reaction products is increased in MBCD-treated MDR cells after exposure to 100 µM cholesterol?
A.AMP + ADP
B.ADP + Pi
C.ATP + Pi
D.ADP + ATP
Passage:
After being exposed to 100 M cholesterol, MDR cells treated with MBCD produce more ATP -> ADP + Pi reaction products. Option B is Correct.
Since ATPase function, which is ATP hydrolysis activity, is fully recovered at 100 M cholesterol in the depleted MDR cells. ADP and inorganic phosphate are produced during ATP hydrolysis. ATP hydrolysis activity is a component of ATPase activity: ATP -> ADP + Pi.
The difference between the experiments in MBCD 1A and 1B causes the proton concentration to be higher: As the pH scale is logarithmic (pH = log([H+]), The correct response is B. Proton concentrations change by 103 = 1000 times for every 3 pH unit deviation. Hence, Option B is Correct.
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Correct Question:
The formation of which reaction products is increased in MBCD-treated MDR cells after exposure to 100 µM cholesterol?
A. AMP + ADP
B. ADP + Pi
C. ATP + Pi
D. ADP + ATP
PLZ ANSWER!!!!!!!! PLZ ANSWER
According to the chemical composition of the layers of the Earth's internal structure, the order we see it with the outermost portion (least dense portion) first is
Answer: From Outermost portion,
The Crust( Continental and Oceanic)
The Mantle( Upper and Lower)
The Core ( Inner and outer)
Explanation:
The order which we see it the chemical composition of the Earth's internal structure from the outermost portion is
A) The Crust--- The crust is the outermost, thinnest and least dense layer of the Earth's internal structure and comprises of two types ; The continental ( consists of igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic rocks around the mountain regions and the oceanic crust ( commonly basalt around the ocean basin.The common elements found here are oxygen, silicon, aluminum, iron, and calcium. Thickness ranges from about 32 km to 8 km.
B) The Mantle: This is the second layer of the internal structure consisting of the Upper and Lower mantle of which the Upper is made up of tectonic plates and responsible for the formation of volcanoes, mountains, or earthquakes. After the Upper mantle , there is a transition zone which separates the two zones before reaching the lower mantle which is responsible for rising of the convection currents to carry heat from the internal part of the earth to rise to the surface due to its extremely high temperature and pressure. Here ,the common elements consists of iron-magnesium-silicate. Density ranges from about 3400 kg/m3 to about 4400 kg/m3 and thickness from about 400 km to about 2,400km.
C) The Core: This is the center of the earth and the hottest part too. it comprises of the outer core(in liquid state, due to its lower pressure with abundance of iron and nickel, and inner core( In solid state, due to its extremely high pressure and temperature with elements iron and nickel together with other metals such as gold, platinum, palladium, silver, and tungsten). Its density ranges from 9,900kg/m3- 13,000 kg/m3.
The formation of planetary and star systems, galaxies, and clusters of galaxies wouldn't be possible without the initiating action of this force: Group of answer choices
The formation of planetary and star systems, galaxies, and clusters of galaxies is primarily driven by **gravity**.
Gravity is the fundamental force responsible for the initiation and development of various celestial structures. It causes matter to attract and clump together, eventually forming larger structures like **planetary systems**, star systems, galaxies, and clusters of galaxies. As particles and gas in space come together under the influence of gravity, they form dense regions that collapse under their own weight, leading to the formation of celestial bodies like stars and planets. In the context of galaxies and galaxy clusters, gravity holds these massive structures together and plays a crucial role in their evolution over time.
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