The trait for 'black feet in ferrets' is a recessive trait encoded for by "f". white feet is encoded for by a dominant allele encoded for by the letter "f".
an ecological study in ferret country conducted by mrs. wright found that out of 1000 ferrets:
360 had black feet
480 had white feet and were heterozygous
160 had white feet and were homozygous.
using this information find the allele frequencies for f and f.
remember "f" = p and "f" = q
a
f = 0.4 and f =0.6
b
f = 0.7 and f = 1
c
f = 1 and f =0.7
d
f = 0.7 and f =0.3
Answers
For the trait for 'black feet in ferrets' is a recessive trait encoded for by "f". white feet is encoded for by a dominant allele encoded for by the letter "f" the sum of the frequencies for f and f all alleles must equal 1.
Let's calculate the frequency of the f allele (p):
The 360 ferrets with black feet are homozygous recessive (ff), so the frequency of the f allele is sqrt(360/1000) = 0.6
The 480 heterozygous ferrets (Ff) have one f allele each, so the frequency of the f allele is 480/1000 x 0.5 = 0.24
The 160 homozygous dominant ferrets (FF) have no f alleles, so the frequency of the f allele is 0.
The sum of the frequencies of f and F is 1, so the frequency of the F allele (q) is:
q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4
Therefore, the answer is (a) f = 0.4 and f = 0.6.
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Related Questions
True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1. Herd animals are usually concentrated in the forest biome.
2. The great northern coniferous forests are part of the tundra biome.
3. Phytoplankton are usually found concentrated in the cuphotic zone of the ocean.
4. The tundra is a region dominated by deciduous trees.
5. The colonization of new sites by communities of organisms is secondary succession.
6. The portion of the shoreline that is affected by the changing tides is the aphotic zone.
7. The region of the occan shallow enough for sunlight to penetrate is the photic zone.
8. Succession is the replacement of one community by another as environmental conditions change.
9. A body of water near the coast that is partly surrounded by land and contains both fresh and salt water is known as the intertidal zone.
10. Humus is a layer of soil that remains frozen throughout the year.
11. Microscopic organisms that float in the sunlit regions of the ocean are pioneer species.
12. The number of species in an area is a measure of biodiversity.
13. Temperate deciduous forests have more biodiversity than any other terrestrial biome.
14. The pesticide CFC damaged the eggs of the American bald eagle.
15. When roads cut across natural areas, this produces habitat fragmentation.
16. A species that is brought to a place where it never lived is considered a(n) native species.
Answers
The statements are described as true or false as given below:
FalseFalseTrueFalseTrueFalseTrueTrueTrueFalseFalseTrueFalseFalseTrueFalseWhat is an intertidal zone?The region between high and low tides where the ocean and land meet is known as the intertidal zone. Anywhere the sea meets the land is an intertidal zone, from long, sloping sandy beaches to mudflats that can stretch for hundreds of meters.
The high tide zone, middle tide zone, and low tide zone are distinct subzones of the intertidal zone that may be distinguished over the majority of shorelines.
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find the LCM of two numbers if there product is 160 and hcf is 4.
Answers
Answer:
40
Explanation:
given
product of two numbers =160
hcf =4 we know that
hcf*LCM=product of the numbers
LCM*4=160
LCM=160/4
LCM=40
Name the 2 different types of endoplasmic reticulum and explain the function of each type endoplasmic reticulum to the cell . (ie - what does each one 'produce', or make for the cell)
Answers
Answer:
The surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is covered in ribosomes, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is not covered in ribosomes.
Explanation:
Hence their terms, rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, the smooth is like a fine tube whereas the rough consists of ribosomes on its surface. Both the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum work together, delegate tasks and are the site for production and storage of proteins.
Smooth ER is responsible for storage and lipids production, while the rough ER is responsible for production of proteins and some hormones.
have a darling weekend ^w^
Comparing The integumentary system of a FROG with The integumentary system of aHUMAN???1.What are the differences in the frogintegumentary body system and that of ahuman integumentary body system?2.Then, what are the similarities in the frogintegumentary body system and that of ahuman integumentary body system?3. Then write a presentation comparing the frog to the human integumentary body system
Answers
The integumentary system is the definite structures creating the outmost part of body of an animal. The following are the differences of the frog and human integumentary system:
a. The integumentary system of a frog can take in water while the integumentary system of human is waterproof.
b. The frog's skin is important for thermoregulation and respiration while the human's skin is important for thermoregulation and protection.
c. The integumentary system of a frog consists the epidermis and dermis while the integumentary system of human consists of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer.
d. The skin of a frog harbors mucus and poisons while the skin of human harbors sweat and sebum.
e. The skin of the frog is thin, slippery and damp while the skin of human varies from dry to oily.
f. The skin of the frog consists of scales while the skin of human consists of fingernails and hair.
The fundamental difference between the frog and human integumantary system is their framewrok and specific purposes.
The distinct structures that make up an animal's outermost body part are known as its integumentary system.
What is Integumentary system?
The integumentary systems of frogs and humans differ in the following ways. The human integumentary system is waterproof, whereas the integumentary system of a frog can absorb water.
The skin of frogs is crucial for respiration and temperature regulation, whereas the skin of humans is crucial for both protection and temperature regulation.
The epidermis and dermis make up the integumentary system of a frog, whereas the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer make up the integumentary system of a human. A frog's skin contains mucus and toxins, whereas a human's skin contains perspiration and sebum.
Therefore, The distinct structures that make up an animal's outermost body part are known as its integumentary system.
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ATPase is an enzyme that can hydrate ATP and release the potential energy stored in the phosphate bond . How would a metabolic inhibitor that blocks ATPase function affect resting potential of nerve cell.
Answers
Answer: There would be a change in the membrane potential which will become less negative.
Explanation:
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a nucleotide used t obtaining cellular energy. The main function of ATP is to provide energy in the biochemical process that take place inside the cell to maintain its functions. It consists of a nitrogenous base, called adenosine, which is linked to carbon 1 of a pentose type sugar. To keep phosphates together in the triphosphate group requires a lot of energy, specifically 7.7 kcal of free energy per mole of ATP, which is the same amount of energy that is released when ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP.
ATPases are a class of enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of ATP into ADP and it also releases a free phosphate ion. This reaction releases energy, henceforth it is exergonic. And this energy is used to carry out other chemical reactions. However, the process that carries out an ATPase on an ATP molecule is also called dephosphorylation. This process releases energy, which the enzyme uses to drive other chemical reactions.
The resting potential of the cell membrane is the difference in potential between the outside and the inside of a cell. This is because the cell membrane behaves as a selective semi-permeable barrier, for example, it allows certain molecules to pass through it and prevents others from doing so. In neurons, which are electrically excitable cells, the resting potential is recorded by the asymmetric distribution of ions (mainly potassium and sodium) when the cell is physiologically at rest (not excited). This potential is calculated by knowing the concentration of the different ions inside and outside the cell, and the resting potential is generally negative.
The sodium-potassium pump is an ATPase that transports three sodium ions out of the cell and also pumps two potassium ions from the outside into the cell, through active transport, using ATP as the source of energy. This pump maintains the differences in sodium and potassium concentration across the cell membrane, and establishes a negative electrical voltage inside the cells. So, this involves the establishment of a net electrical current across the cell membrane, which generates an electrical potential between the inside and outside of the cell.
If a metabolic inhibitor blocks the ATPase (it means, if it blocks the transport of ions that establishes the resting potential), there would be a change in the membrane potential which will become less negative. If the membrane potential becomes more positive, it is depolarized. If the membrane potential becomes more negative, it is hyperpolarized (this means, there would not be hyperpolarization)
Hyperpolarization is the change in the membrane potential that makes it more negative, and it is the opposite of a depolarization (so it inhibits action potentials) An action potential is the wave of electrical discharge that travels along the cell membrane modifying its electrical charge distribution. It is used to carry information between tissues. So with the inhibitor, there will not be an action potential.
Which Factor best explains why some people will react differnetly than others to the same dose of an antibiotic?
A. high potency
B. low concentration
C. Individual exposer
D. Individual suscepetiablity
Answers
Answer:
D. individual susceptibility.
Explanation:
I took a test and it was correct!
mutations within the dna sequence of an organism can
Answers
Answer:
A lot
Explanation:
Many mutations are non harmful, but rarely some can be harmful.
what type of mutation is responsible for new variations of a trait A. Missense B. Frameshift C. Both
Answers
Option C is Correct. Alleles may alter as a result of missense or frameshift mutations, resulting in differences in the characteristic.
Missense: A missense variant is a sort of substitution in which a nucleotide change causes the protein produced from the gene to have a different amino acid in place of one amino acid. The protein's functionality could be affected by the amino acid alteration.
The forms of mutations that result in new variations in the characteristic by swapping out the DNA's building blocks (nucleotides) include substitution, insertion, deletion, duplication, inversion, frameshift, repeat expansion, and deletion-insertion mutations. a genetic change in which the genetic code is changed by a single base pair substitution, resulting in the production of an amino acid that differs from the typical amino acid at that site.
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which is true of metaphase ii?
Answers
The key event that occurs during metaphase II is the alignment of chromosomes along the equator of the cell. This prepares the cell for the next phase of meiosis, which is anaphase II.
The correct answer is: Chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell.
During metaphase II of meiosis, the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell, just as they do during metaphase of mitosis. However, in metaphase II, there are half as many chromosomes as there were during metaphase of mitosis because the cell has already gone through one round of cell division during meiosis I. The sister chromatids of each chromosome are still attached to each other, but they will be pulled apart during anaphase II to create four haploid daughter cells.
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between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
Answers
We can deduce from the list of chromosomes and the aforementioned question that we should expect 15% recombination between the W and G genes since the map distance between them is equivalent to 15 centimorgans. It's a choice (B).
What is centimorgan?The unit for describing a 1% recombination frequency used to measure map distance is the centimorgan (cM). The lowest frequency of recombination, or 3%, is predicted to occur between W and E based on this criterion, we can deduce. Assume P is the epistatic gene in charge of regulating the development of the tail.
The male lacks a tail and is recessive homozygous for the tail length gene, so the genotype of the male is PPtt, in accordance with the question, and the genotype of the female is ppTT. The dominant epistatic allele P specifies that there is no tail formation in the female, who has a long tail. The genotype PpTt and phenotype "no tails" are present in the offspring that is born following mating. Two springs with the same PpTt genotype are being crossed right now. In order to determine the resulting ratio, Punnett square can be used.
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Complete question is " The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome. A---5--W--3--E------12------G. Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
a. A and G
b. W and G
c. W and E
d. A and W
e. E and G".
You return from lunch to science class, and there are two clear liquids on your
desk.
What is the best/safest way to determine what the liquids are?
A. Taste it
B. Touch with your bare fingers
C. Boil it
D. Drag a magnet through it
Answers
Answer:
My best guess would be boil it!
Explain how the visible external features of a green dicotyledonous leaf aid the process of photosynthesis.
Answers
Answer:
The green appearance of the leaf is an effect of the chloroplast inside. Chloroplast inside the leaf absorbs the sunlight, which is a needed ingredient for photosynthesis to occur.
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
To determine whether regulation of gene expression by short RNAs was a naturally occurring phenomenon, researchers isolated RNA from a cell and fractionated them by size to obtain only short RNAs. The next step was to clone these molecules.
Today the cloning step would not be required. Which of the techniques below is the best reason why?
Because a microarray could tell if the fragments were encoded by the genome.
Because a PCR reaction could tell if the fragments were encoded by the genome.
Because an RNA-seq reaction could tell if the fragments were encoded by the genome.
Because a yeast 2 hybrid could tell if the fragments were encoded by the genome.
Because a GFP fusion could tell if the fragments were encoded by the genome.
Which of the following would result in impaired export of a given mRNA molecule? Select all that apply.
There is a point mutation in the portion of the intron necessary to identify the intron/exon junction.
RNA polymerase III loses its CTD.
The cap binding proteins gain a mutation that alter the nuclear export sequence.
mRNA acetylation is decreased.
Fire and Mello conducted an experiment where they added no gene X RNA (b), anti-sense gene X RNA (c) or double stranded gene X RNA (d) to C. elegans embryos. They then did a hybridization experiment examining gene X mRNA levels in the embryo.
Imagine this experiment was a protein X western blot (using an anti-X antibody) instead of a hybridization experiment. Describe the expected results. Select all that apply.
No band would be present in a lane containing protein extracts of embryos treated with double stranded gene X RNA.
No band would be present in a lane containing protein extracts of untreated embryos
A faint band would be present in a lane containing protein extracts of embryos treated with anti-sense gene X RNA.
Answers
The technique that makes the cloning step unnecessary today is RNA-seq reaction. This is the best reason because RNA-seq can tell if the fragments were encoded by the genome.
Therefore, we no longer need to perform a cloning step to determine whether regulation of gene expression by short RNAs was a naturally occurring phenomenon. Here are the answers to the second question: The following would result in impaired export of a given mRNA molecule:
- There is a point mutation in the portion of the intron necessary to identify the intron/exon junction.
- The cap binding proteins gain a mutation that alter the nuclear export sequence.
- mRNA acetylation is decreased.The expected results if this experiment were a protein X western blot (using an anti-X antibody) instead of a hybridization experiment would be:
- No band would be present in a lane containing protein extracts of embryos treated with double-stranded gene X RNA.
- No band would be present in a lane containing protein extracts of untreated embryos.
- A faint band would be present in a lane containing protein extracts of embryos treated with anti-sense gene X RNA.
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_____ systems help supervisors by generating databases that act as the foundation for other information systems.
Answers
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems help supervisors by generating databases that act as the foundation for other information systems.
These systems integrate all areas of a company's operations, including finance, manufacturing, inventory, and human resources, into a single, comprehensive database. This centralized database provides supervisors with real-time access to critical business data, allowing them to make informed decisions and respond quickly to changing business conditions. The database generated by an ERP system serves as the backbone for other information systems, such as customer relationship management (CRM) and supply chain management (SCM) systems. With an ERP system in place, supervisors can streamline their operations and improve efficiency across the organization. Management Information Systems (MIS) help supervisors by generating databases that act as the foundation for other information systems. MIS collects, stores, and organizes data, enabling efficient processing and analysis. This provides valuable insights for decision-making, improving overall business performance.
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A thin layer of tissue called the _____ covers the brain's two hemispheres, collectively known as the _____.
Answers
A thin layer of tissue called the cerebral cortex covers the brain's two hemispheres, collectively known as the cerebrum.
What is the cerebral cortex?The cerebral cortex is a layer of the cerebrum that covers both the right brain hemisphere and the left brain hemisphere associated with the highest skills as motor functions.
In conclusion, a thin layer of tissue called the cerebral cortex covers the brain's two hemispheres, collectively known as the cerebrum.
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which of the following is true of a nonsense suppressor mutation? group of answer choices it reverts the mutant genotype to the wild type dna sequence it prevents binding of a translation termination/release factor it is always located in the anticodon loop of a trna it results in a protein with the wild type amino acid sequence it can restore the wild type phenotype of a gene with a single nucleotide deletion mutation
Answers
A second mutation that affects the translational machinery can produce a nonsense suppressor. With this mutation, the cell can respond to the nonsense codon by insertion of an amino acid, leading to a wild-type or nearly wild-type phenotype.
What takes place in nonsense mutations?DNA undergoes nonsense mutations when a sequence change results in a stop codon rather than a codon that specifies an amino acid. The new stop codon leads to the creation of a truncated protein that is probably not functional.
What impact does a suppressor mutation have?In a procedure known as synthetic rescue, a suppressor mutation is a second mutation that lessens or reverses the phenotypic effects of an already existing mutant. Therefore, genetic suppression brings back the phenotype that existed before the original background mutation.
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Which of the following shows natural selection?Select one:a.A horse's parents were racers. The fastest horses are bred to produce the fastest offspring.b.Some tuna live in the Pacific Ocean. They are fast swimmers so they are likely to survive and pass on their genes.c.Some trees produce apples for baking. Seeds from the largest apples are kept to produce the next generation of trees.d.Certain rabbits are raised for fur. Rabbits with soft fur are bred with other rabbits with soft fur. They eat grain and vegetables.
Answers
Natural selection is the process in which some organisms that show better adaptation to the environment are more likely to produce an offspring. In the case of the exercise, the answer is:
b. Some tuna live in the Pacific Ocean. They are fast, so they are likely to survive and pass on their genes.
It means that as they are better adapted to that environment due to the fact they are fast swimmers, they are likely not only to survive, but to pass their genes and produce offsprings.
How would you classify a blood cell?
A. Cell
B. Tissue
C. Organ
D. Organ System
Answers
Answer:
The identification of blood cells is based primarily on observations of the presence or absence of a nucleus and cytoplasmic granules. Other helpful features are cell size, nuclear size and shape, chromatin appearance, and cytoplasmic staining.
Explanation:
Reason: common sense
if a chemical that disrupts cell division were added to a test tube containing human kidney cells, which process would stop?
Answers
If a chemical that disrupts cell division were added to a test tube containing human kidney cells, mitosis process would stop.
Normal cells undergo the cell cycle in a controlled manner. They select whether to divide their cells based on information about their internal states as well as stimuli from their surroundings. This control prevents cells from dividing in unfavorable situations (such as when their DNA is damaged or when there is insufficient space in a tissue or organ for new cells).
A cell's fundamental decision point, or the point at which it must decide whether or not to split, is the G1. Once the cell enters the S phase and passes the G1, it is irrevocably committed to dividing. That is, a cell that successfully passes the G1 will go the rest of the way through the cell cycle and give rise to two daughter cells, barring unforeseen issues like DNA damage or replication failures.
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Match the description to the part of bone.
compact bone
tissue in the hollow part of the bone
spongy bone
strong, dense outer layer of a bone
bone marrow
lightweight, inner layer of a bone that
contains many small spaces
Intro
Done
Answers
Answer:
strong, dense outer layer of a bone- compact bone
tissue in the hollow part of the bone- bone marrow
lightweight, inner layer of a bone that
contains many small spaces- spongy bone
Explanation:
Compact bone is also known as cortical bone and is a major property and source of skeletal frames in the body due to its strong, dense outer layer.
Bone marrow is the tissue in the hollow part of the bone. It is important as it helps in the production of blood cells
Spongy bone is also known as cancellous bone. It is the lightweight, inner layer of a bone that contains many small spaces which contains a high proportion of bone marrow.
Does applying oil to a person's hair help to prevent brain damage?
Answers
Yes the oil hits vital points in and around the head and face helps relax your body, release tense muscles and calms the mind.
Global emissions of carbon dioxide did what in 2022, giving the planet less than a decade to meet the goals of the landmark paris agreement?.
Answers
In 2022, carbon dioxide emissions continued to be at record high levels, leaving the earth with less than ten years to achieve the targets of the historic Paris Agreement.
What is the Paris Agreement's purpose?Its goal is to keep pre-industrial levels of global warming far below 2 degrees Celsius, ideally below 1.5. To achieve this long-term temperature goal, nations desire to reach the peak of global greenhouse gas emissions as soon as is practical. This will allow them to create a climate-neutral planet by the middle of the century.
In 2022, did carbon emissions decline?According to a new IEA study of the most recent statistics from around the world, these CO2 emissions are on track to rise by about 300 million tonnes to 33.8 billion tonnes in 2022.
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Having an alteration of generation life cycle means that….
Answers
Answer: the ecosystem is balanced.
Explanation:
The __________ muscle spans from the ribs and the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bones.
Answers
The rectus abdominis muscle spans from the ribs and the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic bones.
Long muscles of the anterior abdominal wall make up the rectus abdominis, also referred to as the "abs muscle." It forms a "six-pack" beneath the skin and is visibly seen in people with little body fat. The pubic bone is where it finishes at the rib cage.
The movement of the body between the ribs and the pelvis is the primary job of the rectus abdominis. The rectus abdominis is flanked by external oblique muscles on each side. The trunk's ability to twist is provided by the external oblique muscles, but to the side opposite to the one that is contracting.
Distally, it is attached to the sternum's xiphoid process and the costal cartilages of ribs 5-7. rectus abdominis in humans.
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which of the following statements best describes how biological science has developed over time
Answers
Answer:
A is wrong, because that fact just simply is not true. There have been several other raced men and some women as well that made important contributions to science.
B is correct, because science isn't attributable to just the last couple of hundred years. In ancient times, people developed astronomy and medicine. This is also correct because it names females as part of the scientific contributions to society.
C is incorrect, because this fact is also completely false. Lots of important scientific discoveries have been made from before that, such as the invention of electricity (somewhat useful today I would guess:\) in 1879, which is much longer than 100 years ago.
D is also incorrect, because scientific knowledge is changing constantly, every minute, growing and expanding and changing to accomodate new knowledge and information that we've discovered.
TRUE / FALSE. genetic mutations invariably cause harm to people who inherit them.
Answers
FALSE. While some genetic mutations can lead to health problems or disorders, not all mutations are harmful. Some mutations may even provide a survival advantage or have no impact on a person's health.
Mutations are alterations in the genetic material of an organism that can occur spontaneously or be induced by external factors. They can involve changes in a single nucleotide (point mutations) or larger segments of DNA. Mutations can have various effects, including no noticeable impact, causing genetic disorders, or providing advantages for adaptation. Some mutations can be harmful, leading to diseases such as cancer, while others can be beneficial, conferring resistance to diseases or improving an organism's fitness. Mutations are a fundamental driver of evolution, providing the genetic variation upon which natural selection acts, shaping the diversity of life on Earth.
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Genetic mutations do not always cause harm when inherited. Some mutations can be advantageous or neutral.
Explanation:The statement 'genetic mutations invariably cause harm to people who inherit them' is false. While some mutations can be harmful, there are also advantageous and neutral mutations.
Advantageous mutations can improve an individual's survival and reproduction, like the mutation that confers resistance to insecticides in mosquitos or the mutation for black coloration in peppered moths during the Industrial Revolution. Neutral mutations have no effect on survival or reproduction.
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write the structures listed below in order from least complex to most complex. organ, organism, cell, organelle, and tissue.
Answers
Answer: cell, tissue, organelle, organ, and organism
Explanation:
Mrs. Kelly and her dog go for a 2 mile walk every day. Their path consists of walking 0.5 miles north, then turning left; walking 1.0 mile west, then turning left; walking 0.5 miles south, then turning left; walking 1.0 mile east and arriving back home. At what point did Mrs. Kelly and her dog have maximum displacement?
After walking 0.5 miles north
After walking 1.0 mile west
After walking 0.5 miles south
After walking 1.0 east
By the way this is for science please answer
Answers
Answer: After walking 1.0 east
Explanation:
Maximum displacement is when the velocity = 0
idrk what that mean and i was looking for the answer myself tbh cuz i have no clue nd its on my test im doing rn but im jus guessing thats right i hope
You have been asked to speak to a high school class about the clinical aspects of your job. in particular, the students are interested in microbiology because they have just completed a unit on microorganisms in class.
what would you tell them about your functions as a medical assistant?
what would you say to those who asked if you looked through the microscope and reported your findings?
one student asks what type of training one would need to work solely in microbiology in a laboratory setting. how would you answer her?
Answers
Answer:
that they have to discuss it
The functions of a medical assistant are to Update and file patient medical records. Coding and filling out insurance forms. Scheduling appointments. Arranging for hospital admissions and laboratory services.
What can you see when you look through a microscope?A microscope is an instrument that is used to magnify small objects. Some microscopes can even be used to observe an object at the cellular level, allowing scientists to see the shape of a cell, its nucleus, mitochondria, and other organelles.
What do you see under a microscope?A microscope is a device used to magnify small objects. Some microscopes can also be used to observe objects at the cellular level, allowing scientists to see the shape of cells, their nuclei, mitochondria, and other organelles.Why is it important to know about the microscope?A microscope is a tool that allows you to take a closer look at an object and see beyond what you can see with your eyes. Without them, we don't know how cells exist, how plants breathe, or how rocks change over time.
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Renewable or nonrenewable
Answers
1: nonrenewable
2: renewable
3: nonrenewable
4: nonrenewable
5: renewable
6: renewable
7
8: renewable
9: renewable
10:nonrenable
11: renewable
12: nonrenewable
13: nonrenewable
14: renewable
15: non renewable
16: nonrenewable
17: renewable
18: non renewable
19: non renewable
20: non renewable
I'm not sure about number 7 because nuclear energy its self is a renewable resource but what is used in nuclear powerplants is not.