Which are consequences of smoking while pregnant? Select three options.

SIDS
stillbirth
painful delivery
birth defects
large birth weight

Answers

Answer 1

The consequences of smoking while pregnant are SIDS, stillbirth, and birth defects. The correct options are A, B, and D.

What is smoking?

Smoking is having nicotine from cigarettes and vaping. Nicotine is not good for health, and it causes lung cancer and other health consequences.

Smoking during pregnancy is harmful to the health of the mother and the baby. It reduces the amount of oxygen that reaches the baby, which causes deformities in the infant. Because the growth of the baby affects due to less oxygen.

Thus, the correct options are A, B, and D.

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Answer 2

Answer: SIDS, Stillbirth, and birth defects.

Explanation:

they are the only medical affects from drugs and it’s right on edge


Related Questions

Alcohol is a depressant.
O True
O False

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

true, it is a depressant


2. What is one of the three functions of the peripheral vision area of a driver?

Answers

Answer: establishing a visual lead

Explanation:

When a person is driving, it is important to establish a visual lead. That means that person must be aware while driving and to have the capacity to divide attention between everything that is important and based on the vehicle. Those are things such as speed, condition of the roadway, and position.

Drivers must also be aware of other drivers' actions and that is why a visual lead is one of the most important functions.  

The one of the three functions of the peripheral vision area of a driver is detecting objects and movement in the driver's surroundings. The correct option is C.

Finding objects and motion in one's surroundings is one of a driver's peripheral vision area's main duties.

Drivers can be aware of the presence of vehicles, pedestrians, and other possible hazards that may not be in their direct line of sight thanks to peripheral vision.

It aids in finding items at the borders of the field of view, in blind areas, and in the driver's side mirrors. This awareness is essential for safe driving because it helps drivers to foresee potential problems, react to them, and change their driving habits as needed.

The use of peripheral vision is not largely related to options A) (focused on distant objects), B) (reading traffic signs and directions), and D) (evaluating the speed of approaching cars).

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:

2. What is one of the three functions of the peripheral vision area of a driver?

A) Focusing on distant objects

B) Reading road signs and directions

C) Detecting objects and movement in the driver's surroundings

D) Judging the speed of oncoming vehicles

__________ is not a cause of burnout. A. Work overload B. Interpersonal conflicts at work C. Recognition at work D. Lack of control over workplace responsibilities Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

Answer:

C. Recognition at work

Explanation:

I can confirm on edge2021

Recognition at work is not a cause of burnout. Therefore, option (C) is correct option.

What is a job burnout?

A state of physical or emotional tiredness that is also accompanied by a sense of reduced accomplishment and loss of personal identity is referred to as job burnout. Job burnout is a special kind of stress that is tied to work. There is no such thing as a medical illness called "burnout." Some industry professionals are of the opinion that other disorders, such as depression, are the root cause of burnout.

There are three main symptoms associated with burnout: diminished efficacy, depersonalization, and tiredness. Energy loss and exhaustion are also associated with burnout.

Therefore, being recognized at work is not a cause of burnout.

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The nursing instructor is explaining the safe use of prescription drugs. after the discussion, the students correctly choose which nursing actions as being the most important? select all that apply.

Answers

The most important safe use of drug prescription which the student correctly chose is the its clinical effectiveness

It is very important to understand that aside all t

other factors to be considered when using drugs, its good and side effects are most important

Nursing interventions

These are cares and actions given by nurses to patients who have health related issues

However, infections which affect patients are those infections which patients can from bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other pathogens.

So therefore, the most important safe use of drug prescription which the student correctly chose is the its clinical effectiveness

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A mother calls about her 3-year-old child who has a possible ear infection. Explain to the mother the role of a nurse practitioner.

Answers

In the case of a 3-year-old child with a possible ear infection, the mother can bring her child to see a nurse practitioner who can examine the child's ears and determine if there is an infection present.

As a mother, it is important to understand that seeking care from a nurse practitioner for your child's possible ear infection can be a beneficial choice.

They have a patient-centered approach, which means they prioritize the patient's needs and work with the patient and their family to make decisions about their care. They can also provide education on preventive care, nutrition, and lifestyle choices to help improve your child's overall health and work in collaboration with other healthcare professionals.

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Research and discuss the differences, similarities, and current trends between non-profit and for-profit healthcare organizations. Also, discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each model and state which model you feel operates better and why.

Answers

Healthcare organisations that are for-profit and non-profit have different fundamental goals, funding sources, governance models, and profit sharing arrangements.

Objectives:Non-profit organisations: The provision of healthcare services and the accomplishment of a social mission are the main objectives of non-profit healthcare organisations. They want to help the community while improving services by investing any extra money back into the business.Healthcare organisations that are for-profit are motivated by the desire to make money for their owners and shareholders. Although they also offer medical services, their main priorities are achieving financial success and increasing shareholder value.access to cash for growth and investment.Efficiency and creativity are encouraged through incentive-driven structures.the capacity to draw shareholders and investors.flexibility in the distribution of resources and decision-making.Healthcare for-profit organisations' drawbacksPossibility of putting business interests ahead of patient care.limited attention paid to underserved areas or services that are not profitable.Challenges with public perception and regulatory scrutiny.

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The Arizona poppy is a plant that is native in the southwestern United States the orange flower blooms in summer and the plant is covered in small hairs. It is an important part of an ecosystem because at least 46 different species of insects visit flower for food. Which of the flowing compounds would the plant require asimpouts for photosynthesis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is -

Inputs: carbon dioxide and water

outputs: /sugar/glucose and oxygen

Explanation:

The Arizona poppy is a plant and like other plants, it also performs photosynthesis to make their food and energy by trapping the light or solar energy.

It requires carbon dioxide and water in order to produce glucose and oxygen to perform their cellular function. The reaction that exhibits the reaction of the photosynthesis process is :

    6CO2 + 6H2O =====> C6H12O6 + 6O2

 This food is considered a simple carbohydrate?

Answers

Some simple carbohydrates are raw sugar, brown sugar, glucose, fructose

Does vaping alleviate anxiety or stress?

Answers

yes it does alleviate anxiety

identify the unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response. explain how these elements work together to create classical conditioning

Answers

Classical conditioning is a type of learning that occurs when a neutral  imulus (the conditioned stimulus, or CS) becomes associated with a meaningful stimulus (the unconditioned stimulus, or UCS) and begins to elicit a response (the conditioned response, or CR) that is similar to the response produced by the meaningful stimulus (the unconditioned response, or UCR).

The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is a stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response without any prior learning or conditioning. For example, if you were to smell your favorite food cooking, that smell would be the UCS that triggers your mouth to water (the UCR).

The unconditioned response (UCR) is the natural and automatic response that is triggered by the unconditioned stimulus. Using the same example as above, the UCR is your mouth watering in response to the smell of your favorite food.

The conditioned stimulus (CS) is a neutral stimulus that, through repeated pairing with the unconditioned stimulus, eventually becomes associated with the UCS and begins to elicit a response similar to the UCR. In other words, it is a stimulus that was previously neutral but now has acquired the ability to elicit a response because it has been paired with the UCS. For example, if a certain song is always played when you eat your favorite food, that song would become the CS.

Finally, the conditioned response (CR) is the learned response that is triggered by the conditioned stimulus. This response is similar or identical to the unconditioned response, but is triggered by the CS instead of the UCS. Using the same example as above, the CR would be your mouth watering in response to the song that was always played when you ate your favorite food.

Essentially, the UCS and the UCR are naturally linked together, and the CS is paired with the UCS until it too becomes associated with the UCR. Over time, the CS comes to elicit the CR, and the association between the CS and the CR becomes stronger with each pairing.

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ANSWER PLS I NEED HELP!!!!
What is a necessary element of every effective physical activity action plan?
Responses

stating when and how often the steps are done
stating when and how often the steps are done

identifying role models who have achieved the goal

identifying role models who have achieved the goal

evaluating personal skills to execute the action plan
evaluating personal skills to execute the action plan

developing a plan B in case of failure

Answers

The correct option is stating when and how often the steps are done.

What is a necessary element of every effective physical activity action plan?

Stating when and how often the steps are done is a necessary element of every effective physical activity action plan. This helps to establish a clear routine and ensure consistency in carrying out the plan.

Additionally, evaluating personal skills to execute the action plan is also important to ensure that the plan is realistic and achievable. Developing a plan B in case of failure can also be useful in helping to overcome obstacles and setbacks. Identifying role models who have achieved the goal can provide motivation and inspiration, but it is not necessarily a necessary element for every effective physical activity action plan.

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True or false: A person should get as little sleep as possible. That's because sleep contributes to weight gain and reduces the time available for health promoting behaviors.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

no answer

false. a person needs at least 8 hours of sleep.

what do we need to know about athletes taking probiotcs? what do we
need to know about the pros of probiotics

Answers

Athletes taking probiotics should be aware of their potential benefits for digestive health and immune function.

Probiotics are beneficial bacteria that can have positive effects on athletes' overall health and performance. When athletes engage in intense physical activity, their bodies undergo significant stress, which can impact their gut health and immune system. By taking probiotics, athletes can promote a healthy balance of gut bacteria, which in turn supports optimal digestion, absorption of nutrients, and immune function.

Probiotics can also help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal issues, such as bloating, cramping, and diarrhea, which can be particularly beneficial during periods of increased training or competition.

Probiotics have been shown to enhance the production of short-chain fatty acids in the gut, which can provide an additional energy source for athletes. This can be especially advantageous for endurance athletes who require prolonged energy supply during training or events.

Moreover, probiotics have been linked to a reduction in inflammation and oxidative stress, both of which can impede athletic performance and delay recovery. By modulating the gut microbiota, probiotics can positively influence the body's inflammatory response and support faster recovery from exercise-induced muscle damage.

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The modern game of bowling has?

Answers

Answer:Most of today's entry-level bowling balls have polyester coverstocks. These are also known as “plastic” coverstocks. We'll use these two terms interchangeably in this article. The main characteristic of plastic coverstocks is that they generally don't have much hook potential.M

Explanation:

just smart

which of the following statements best explains why the same exercise program might agree to the principle of overload for one person but not for another

Answers

The explanations provided in the sentences that follow provide the most clarity as to why a given workout regimen may conform to the principle of overload for one individual but not for another. The degree of physical fitness varies among people.

What constitutes a practical workout schedule?According to the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, adults should engage in a minimum of two and a half hours of moderate aerobic activity or one hour and fifteen minutes of intense cardiovascular activity per week. (Note: For those who want a mix, 10 minutes of strong activity equates to around 20 minutes of moderate activity.) Start a five-day workweek of exercise and two days off. This provides more than enough room for improvement for the majority of people. Don't forget that not every workout day will feature extreme mileage or tough training; other days may merely require recuperation or accessory work.

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Rylie, who is now feeling healthy while in _______________, has been fighting to make medical cannabis legal for sick kids.

Answers

Answer:

the hospital for the department of kids

What's important to know or understand about the process of "life review"? Explain

Answers

Answer:

I think it would be that no matter how much money or what you do for a living, unless it’s lie robbing someone or something bad, you are always worth it. You are a living thing and should be treated fairly for how you treat others and they should treat you the same way.

Explanation:

I think overall, life is a very long rollercoaster and it definitely has its downs but it’s also got the joys in life which are important.

Both are important because you should experience different outcomes and different life lessons.

Life is temporary and it exists for some time only ,you have only one life and one chance enjoy the life without chasing behind.According to Shakespeare's legendary sonnets life is just a stage and we all humans are characters in it .Life is good for you if you can live good else it's bad.You have to go through the bad stages of life inorder to archive the good stages as success comes after struggle

Does.anyone know the answer.Will give brainliest.

Does.anyone know the answer.Will give brainliest.

Answers

Answer:

A) defense

Explanation:

It takes the body blank hours to rid the body of blank drinks

Answers

Answer:

It takes the body about 1-2 hours to rid the body of alcoholic drinks.

Explanation:

Sophia is 9 years-old and has $3,200 of interest income from a savings account in 2019. Sophia's parent claim her as a dependent and make no special elections with respect to Sophia's income. Sophia's income will be taxed at her parent's tax rate. True False

Answers

True I am so sorry if wrong it’s just that I try to help

When it comes to promoting abstinence, scare tactics and threats are usually the least effective methods. what do you think are the three most persuasive reasons to abstain from sexual activity? rank them from one to three, with reasons included.

Answers

Answer:

1. STDs and STIs

2. Pressure/ uncomfortable with the person

3. Teen pregnancy

Explanation:

1. Without the proper education on safe sex practices, there is a very high risk of contracting a sexual transmitting disease without even knowing. Before having sex, you should be taught how to protect yourself and your partners.

2. Someone may be pressured into having sex because the other individual is persuading them to do so, not necessarily listening to what their own body is saying. The person should make sure they are ready and comfortable at all moments. Educate on consent and what it entails.

3. If teens are taught that abstinence is the only way, there will be much more teen pregnancies. They need to be educated on the ways to prevent pregnancy. The risks of having sex should be talked about with both partners before consenting.

Which of the following characteristics is not inherited?
a. blood type
b. hair color
c. eye color
d. accent

Answers

Answer: d hope it helps

Answer:

d. accent

Explanation:

it depends on where they live how their accent is or if they even half one

What is considered a preexisting condition for health insurance.

Answers

A preexisting condition is any health condition or ailment that an individual had before getting a new health insurance policy.

It refers to any illness, injury, or medical condition that a person has been diagnosed with or treated for, either currently or in the past, regardless of whether the person is still experiencing symptoms or has recovered fully. A preexisting condition can range from minor ailments, such as a sprained ankle, to serious medical issues, such as heart disease or cancer. A preexisting condition can cause difficulties when getting health insurance because insurance companies typically consider them to be high-risk individuals who are more likely to need medical treatment. As a result, health insurance companies may limit coverage for preexisting conditions or charge higher premiums to cover the additional risk. However, with the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, insurance companies are no longer allowed to deny coverage or charge higher rates based on preexisting conditions.

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why do people chooae soccer to exercise​

Answers

Soccer has a lot of running and cardio in it. Therefore it makes a good source of exercise.

a bomb calorimeter can provide a close approximation for the amount of energy that will be produced by the body through the process of metabolism.

Answers

A  bomb calorimeter can provide a close approximation for the amount of energy that will be produced by the body through the process of metabolism.

What is a bomb calorimeter ?A bomb calorimeter calculates the amount of calories or joules needed to measure the heat produced or absorbed during a combustion reaction. Energy can be measured in calories and joules. Consequently, a bomb calorimeter counts the thermal energy present in a substance.The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius is measured in calories. 4.184 Joules are equated to one calorie. The term "food calorie" on food labels in the US really refers to a kilocalorie (kcal), or 1000 calories.The Joule is the only unit of energy established in the International System of Units (SI system). A Joule is equivalent to the amount of work performed when an object is moved by a 1 newton (N) force.

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Nurses should tell patients who are receiving ophthalmic medications that they will possibly experience:A. blurred vision.B. dizzinessC. itching.D. sneezing.

Answers

Nurses should inform patients receiving ophthalmic medications that they may possibly experience blurred vision. The Correct option is D

Ophthalmic medications, such as eye drops or ointments, can cause temporary blurring of vision due to their formulation and their intended effects on the eye. However (dizziness, itching, and sneezing) are less likely to be associated with ophthalmic medications. Dizziness, itching, and sneezing are more commonly related to other types of medications or allergies.

It is important for nurses to provide accurate information regarding potential side effects to ensure patients are well-informed and can report any concerning symptoms promptly.

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Explaim the term dietary supplement (10 marks)

Answers

A dietary supplement is a product that is intended to supplement the diet by providing an extra source of essential nutrients.

It may consist of one or more vitamins, minerals, herbs, amino acids, or other substances, and is typically available in a pill, capsule, tablet, powder, or liquid form. The purpose of a dietary supplement is to increase the intake of nutrients that may be lacking in a person’s diet, or to address specific health concerns. Dietary supplements are regulated by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the United States.

The FDA does not test dietary supplements for safety and effectiveness before they are marketed, but it does require manufacturers to follow certain labeling and manufacturing practices. There are a variety of different types of dietary supplements, each with its own unique benefits and potential risks. Some of the most popular dietary supplements include multivitamins, omega-3 fatty acids, probiotics, and herbal supplements such as echinacea and ginkgo biloba. It is important to consult with a healthcare

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Jill is an elite gymnast. She is 16 years old and knows that this upcoming year will be her last shot to make the U.S. team to compete in the world championship. Her coaches have been pressuring her to keep her weight down and Jill has begun restricting her calories to less than 1,200 per day. On days during which she eats more than 1,200 calories, she takes a laxative to help purge the extra energy. Her weight has stayed low but lately she has stopped menstruating. Last week she fell off the balance beam and fractured her ankle. A bone density study showed that she is at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following most accurately describes Jill's condition?
A. Binge-eating disorder.
B. Anorexia nervosa.
C. Female athlete triad.
D. Bulimia nervosa.

Answers

Answer:

C. Female athlete triad

4. Which statement is true regarding Check No. - 409?

Answers

The statement that is true regarding Check No. - 409 is B. This check was written by John and paid to another person or business.

What is a check?

A cheque, also known as a check, is a document that instructs a bank to transfer a certain sum of money from a person's account to the person whose name the cheque is issued. The drawer, or individual who writes the cheque, has a transaction banking account where the money is kept.

A check is a written, dated, and signed instrument that instructs a bank to pay the bearer a certain sum of money. It is an alternative method of instructing a bank to transfer payments from the payor's account to the payee's or that person's account.

The person or entity that writes the check is known as the payor, while the person to whom the check is addressed is known as the payee. At the same time, the drawee is the bank that issued the check.

Note that the complete information is written below.

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Complete question

Which statement is true regarding Check No. - 409?

a.This check likely came from John’s employer.

b.This check was written by John and paid to another person or business.

c.This check caused John to overdraw his checking account.

d.This check added $100 to John’s account.

What is the fear of tubes called ?

Answers

Answer:

im pretty sure it's trypophobia .

Answer:

The fear of tubes is trypophobia

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