"Tell me what makes you afraid."RationaleThe child will have the chance to express his feelings and concerns if you let him talk about what frightens him.The child's anxieties should not be minimized as a kind of therapy.
What are a few therapeutic examples?Drug therapy, medical equipment, nutrition therapy, and stem cell therapies are a few examples of therapeutics.Pharmacology can be used as palliative care, preventive medicine, or to cure the symptoms itself or its symptoms in patients who have disease.
What does "therapeutic" mean?therapy, treatment, and care provided to a patient with the goal of treating or preventing disease, reducing pain, or healing an injury.The name of the concept is therapeutikos, a Greek word that means "disposed to service."
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Following a motorcycle crash, a 29-year-old man has pain and deformity to both of his femurs. He is conscious but confused, and his
vital signs indicate shock. EMTs are en route to the scene. You should:
Answer:
You should secure his legs together with cravats
Explanation:
Case Study 3 – Consent
A 14-year-old youth suffering depression does not want to discuss his problems with his parents. He seeks help from a community health centre. On his first visit he is provided with counselling and asked to return for a second visit where the possibility of medication will be discussed. He is reassured that his parents do not have to be involved if he does not want them to be. Researchers from the centre are looking for people to take part in a study that will find out if a new investigational drug can help in the treatment of depression. They invite the fourteen-year-old to participate in the randomised controlled trial. The researchers say that parental consent is not needed for the 14-year-old to access treatment so they do not need to obtain parental consent for him to participate in the research.
Questions
Is the researcher’s view correct?
Does it depend on the nature of the reasarch?
Which of the following defines the body’s set point? a. Point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight b. Point at which all LPL activity ceases c. Point at which a person’s weight plateaus before dropping again quickly d. A person’s minimum healthy weight e. A person’s maximum healthy weight
The correct option that defines the body's set point is: (e) A person's maximum healthy weight.
The body's set point refers to the weight range within which an individual's body tends to naturally regulate and maintain its weight. It is influenced by various factors, including genetics, metabolism, and physiological processes.
The set point is typically associated with a range of weights, and it helps to maintain homeostasis by regulating appetite, energy expenditure, and fat storage.
Option e, "A person's maximum healthy weight," aligns with the concept of the body's set point as it represents the upper limit of weight that is considered healthy for an individual. It signifies the point beyond which weight gain may be considered excessive and potentially detrimental to overall health.
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The body's set point is the physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. It influences the maintenance of homeostasis and can be adjusted over time in response to physiological conditions.
Explanation:The body's set point is the physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. This set-point is genetically predetermined and efforts to move our weight significantly from the set-point are resisted by compensatory changes in energy intake and/or expenditure. It is referred as the ideal body weight, which the body attempts to maintain.
Set-point is critical in the maintenance of homeostasis, a stable state of the body. When deviations from the set point occur, the body initiates a negative feedback mechanism that aims to reverse the deviation and maintain body parameters within their normal range.
It is important to note that the set point can adjust over time. For instance, in the case of blood pressure, the set point may increase due to consistent high blood pressure, leading to the maintenance of an elevated blood pressure which can have harmful effects on the body. However, through interventions like medication, it is possible to lower the set point to a more healthful level.
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what is 200000+20000 times 200000
Answer:
4.4×10(9)
Explanation:
200000+20000=220000
220000X200000=4.4000000000 or in shorter terms4.4×109
A doctor diagnoses a patient with a disease called polymyositis. The patient tires quickly when walking, has difficulty swallowing, and struggles to raise his arms above his head. This disease primarily affects which type of tissue?
Polymyositis affects muscle tissue in the patients body
Which parasite is transmitted through the predator-prey route?
OA
Toxocara canis
OB.
Ancylostoma caninum
O C.
lice
OD.
Echnicoccus
O E.
Trichomonas
Answer:
Toxocara canis
Explanation:
Predator prey route is the transmission method used by different protozoa. They enter the body of the prey when they eat an infected prey. They are infused in the blood of the predator and then resides there forming an infection. They overcome transmission barriers and enters the body of host.
Type the correct spelling of the term.
Misspelled term: bersay
Correct spelling of term is ________
PLEASE HELP IVE FAILED THIS TEST 3 TIMES ALREADY
At a 24-hour hospital pharmacy, the most desirable hours usually are those that occur during the day time. Of the four shifts listed, which best describes how the staff would assign hours?
Shift 1: 8 a.m. to 4 p.m.
Shift 2: 2 p.m. to 9 p.m.
Shift 3: 7 p.m. to 2 a.m.
Shift 4: 1 a.m. to 8 a.m.
A. The most senior employee would get shift 1.
B. The most senior employee would get shift 2.
C. The most senior employee would get shift 3.
D. The most senior employee would get shift 4.
Answer:
I think the answer is A
Explanation:
I hope this helps:)
Describe the negative message strategy
Answer:
The direct approach places the negative news at the beginning of the message, while the indirect approach packages the negative news between a positive introduction, sometimes called a “buffer” or cushion, and a conclusion. Your negative message may include the rationale or reasons for the decision.
Explanation:
I Hope This Helps!!!
An infant born with an imperforate anus returns from surgery after requiring a colostomy. The nurse assesses the stoma and notes that it is red and edematous. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?
The nurse must document the findings.
What is colostomy ?A colostomy is a procedure to direct one end of the colon (a portion of the bowel) into a stomach hole. The stoma is the name of the aperture. To collect your waste, you can put a pouch over your stoma (stools). A colostomy can be either temporary or permanent.
Some signs include :
stomach cramps, bloating, and stomach swelling.
an enlarged stoma.
vomiting and/or nauseous.
In some situations, when the surgeon removes a section of the colon, it can be required to perform a treatment to connect the colon's remaining portion to the outside of the body.
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What contributes MOST to the acutely serious complications from end-stage renal disease?
A. Failure to control hypertension adequately
B. Consumption of foods that should be avoided
C. Use of medications that should be avoided
D. Failure to make regularly scheduled dialysis appointments
The failure to make regularly scheduled dialysis appointments contributes MOST to the acutely serious complications from end-stage renal disease. The answer is A.
End-stage renal disease (ESRD) is a life-threatening condition that results from the failure of the kidneys to perform their vital functions. Dialysis is a crucial treatment option that helps to remove excess fluid and waste products from the body when the kidneys are unable to do so.
Failure to make regularly scheduled dialysis appointments can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, which can cause a wide range of serious complications, such as hyperkalemia, pulmonary edema, pericarditis, and even death.
It is important for patients with ESRD to adhere to their dialysis schedule and follow their healthcare provider's recommendations closely to prevent these complications. Additionally, patients should also make dietary and lifestyle changes as recommended by their healthcare provider to manage their condition effectively. Hence, A is the right option.
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little confused SOMEONE TELL ME <3
someone please hurry my time is running out !!!
[figure 1. Simplified model of clotting cascade]
Warfarin is a drug used to treat certain blood clots. Warfarin blocks the formation of the active form of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Based on the model, which of the following best predicts the effects of warfarin on a patient?
Factor X will not be activated, which will prevent thrombin from forming. Warfarin works by influencing the liver to lessen the levels of a few important blood clotting components.
What is the way that warfarin works?Mechanism of action — Warfarin and other vitamin K antagonists (VKAs) inhibit the activity of the liver's vitamin K epoxide reductase complex, depleting the reduced form of vitamin K, which is a cofactor for the gamma-carboxylation of coagulation components dependent on vitamin K [1].
How does warfarin affect the various clotting factors?Clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as the naturally occurring endogenous anticoagulant proteins C and S, are all prevented from being produced by warfarin (2).
Which pathway is blocked by warfarin?Factor VII has the shortest half-life of all the coagulation factors, therefore it is the first to run out when taking warfarin orally, which initially impacts the extrinsic pathway. As a result, the intrinsic and common pathways are inhibited. The levels of factors II, IX, and X also decrease.
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An anticoagulant called warfarin (Coumadin) aids in the treatment and prevention of blood clots. The nurse should be knowledgeable of the medication's mechanism of action, the rationale for its prescription, any nursing implications, toxicity signs and symptoms, and how to instruct the patient on how to take it.
The transformation of liquid blood into semisolid blood clots is known as blood coagulation. Blood loss from harmed blood vessels is less likely thanks to it. People who have suffered from a disorder brought on by a blood clot, such as a stroke, are frequently prescribed anticoagulant medications, such as warfarin. a cardiac arrest. A blood clot in a deep vein of the body, typically in the leg, is referred to as deep vein thrombosis.
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If woman has group B strep bactiuria or has had a previous pregnancy complicated by early-onset GBS disease in the infant, what is done?
If a woman has group B strep (GBS) bacteriuria or has had a previous pregnancy complicated by early-onset GBS disease in the infant, the following steps are taken: Prenatal screening, Antibiotic treatment and Monitoring the infant.
1. Prenatal screening: The woman undergoes prenatal screening for GBS during the third trimester, typically between 35-37 weeks of pregnancy. This screening involves collecting a swab from the lower vagina and rectum and testing it for the presence of GBS bacteria.
2. Antibiotic treatment: If the screening result is positive for GBS or the woman has a history of early-onset GBS disease in a previous infant, she will be given intravenous (IV) antibiotics during labor to reduce the risk of GBS transmission to the newborn. Penicillin is the preferred antibiotic, but others may be used if the woman is allergic.
3. Monitoring the infant: After delivery, the newborn will be monitored closely for any signs of GBS infection. If any signs of infection are present, the infant may receive antibiotic treatment as well.
By following these steps, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the risk of early-onset GBS disease in infants and ensure a healthier pregnancy and delivery for both the mother and the baby.
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What effect does parathyroid hormones have on bones?
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone regulates serum calcium through its effects on bone, kidney, and the intestine: In bone, PTH enhances the release of calcium from the large reservoir contained in the bones. Bone resorption is the normal destruction of bone by osteoclasts, which are indirectly stimulated by PTH.
Sherry is a nurse in the intensive care unit. She is the only nurse assigned to two patients. Feeling discouraged, she begins preparing for report. During the hand-off report, the outgoing nurse tells Sherry that she really should confront the charge nurse about her heavy assignment to see whether she could change it. Sherry shakes her head and states, "I can handle it." The other nurse suggests that Sherry tell the charge nurse that if she took one patient away, Sherry would take the first admission. Again, Sherry shakes her head. Another nurse overhears the conversation and assures Sherry that she could help her care for her patients. At this point, Sherry thanks the nurse and tells her how much she appreciates the teamwork on the unit. The charge nurse transfers one of Sherry’s patients to the medical-surgical unit while Sherry was at lunch. When Sherry returns from her break, she is surprised to find only one of her patients on the unit.
what type of conflict resolution has occurred? defend your position.
In this situation, the conflict resolution involves both teamwork and adjustments made by the charge nurse to ensure a manageable workload for Sherry while maintaining patient care quality.
The type of conflict resolution that has occurred in this scenario is "compromise" combined with "collaboration." Sherry initially tries to handle the situation independently, but a fellow nurse offers assistance, demonstrating collaboration. This teamwork helps address the issue of a heavy workload. The charge nurse then transfers one of Sherry's patients to the medical-surgical unit, which is a compromise, as it addresses the concern of an overwhelming workload while still maintaining adequate care for the patients.
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What is the appropriate term for the central area in the kidney where formed urine is collected, before flowing down into the ureter?.
Answer:
there is no such organ where urine holds before flowing to the ureter, it is a continuous process, the urine pass from nephrons to the ureter and from the ureter to the urinary bladder where it could hold for some time.
Explanation:
The Omnibus Buget Reconciliation Act of 1987, commonly called OBRA, requires states to establish training and testing standards for which group of health care workers?
a. Nursing and geriatric assistants
b. Nurses
c. Laboratory technicians
d. Medical billers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Nursing and geriatric assistants. In ancient times, religion played an important part in determining health care beliefs.
The emergency, cardiology, labor and delivery, neurology, and intensive care units are some of the ________ of a typical hospital.
The emergency, cardiology, labor and delivery, neurology, and intensive care units are some of the departments of a typical hospital.
A hospital is a type of medical facility that offers a variety of healthcare services to people with different illnesses and injuries. It is a location where patients can access healthcare, get diagnosed, treated, and cared for by licenced healthcare professionals. Hospitals are essential elements of any healthcare system because they provide cutting-edge medical equipment, trained medical personnel, and numerous specialised divisions to meet diverse medical demands. These divisions could be maternity wards, intensive care units, surgical units, radiology departments, and many others.
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You are called to help treat an infant with severe symptomatic bradycardia (heart rate 66/min) associated with respiratory distress. The bradycardia persists despite establishment of an effective airway, oxygenation, and ventilation. There is no heart block present. Which is the first drug you should administer?
The bradycardia persists despite establishment of an effective airway, oxygenation, and ventilation. There is no heart block present, the first drug to administer should be epinephrine.
Despite establishing an effective airway, oxygenation, and ventilation, the bradycardia persists, and there is no heart block present. Epinephrine is a vital drug in this situation because it has both alpha and beta-adrenergic effects, which help to increase the heart rate, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and enhance myocardial contractility.
As a result, epinephrine improves blood flow to vital organs, including the brain and heart, ultimately leading to the stabilization of the infant's condition. Early administration of epinephrine can be lifesaving in cases of severe symptomatic bradycardia, and it is considered the first-line treatment in such scenarios. The bradycardia persists despite establishment of an effective airway, oxygenation, and ventilation. There is no heart block present, the first drug to administer should be epinephrine.
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Seeking therapeutic help as a method to quit smoking includesMultiple Choice consuming small quantities of nicotine regularly. using nicotine patches and nicotine gum. quitting smoking without making major life changes. apy and medications,
Seeking therapeutic help as a method to quit smoking includesMultiple Choice consuming small quantities of nicotine regularly. using nicotine patches and nicotine gum. quitting smoking without making major life changes. apy and medications, The correct answer is d) Therapy and medications.
When seeking therapeutic help to quit smoking, individuals may engage in therapy sessions and utilize medications to support their smoking cessation efforts. Therapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), can help individuals address underlying psychological factors, develop coping strategies, and modify behaviors associated with smoking. Medications, such as nicotine replacement therapy (patches, gum, inhalers) or prescription medications like bupropion or varenicline, can aid in reducing nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms. While consuming small quantities of nicotine regularly (option a) can be a strategy used in some smoking cessation approaches, it is not typically part of therapeutic help. Option b, using nicotine patches and gum, is a valid approach that falls under the category of nicotine replacement therapy. Quitting smoking without making major life changes (option c) may be challenging, as lifestyle modifications and behavioral changes are often necessary for successful smoking cessation. However, seeking therapy and utilizing medications (option d) are commonly recommended methods to support individuals in their journey to quit smoking.
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Developments in medical technology make it possible to:.
Developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.
What is medical technology?The expression medical technology makes reference to the development of new methodologies and devices to enhance heath.
Medical technology has been fundamental for increasing the quality of life of people around the world.
In conclusion, developments in medical technology make it possible to detect and treat different types of illnesses.
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What process a simulates what a regular hardware computer can do through a software package
Virtualization software simulates what a regular hardware can do through a software package.
what do you mean by virtualization software ?
You may run two or more operating systems on one PC by using virtualization software. Thus, it works as two or more computers in one. The others are virtual, and one is physical. examples are Citrix, which specializes on application virtualization but also offers server virtualization and virtual desktop solutions, and VMware, which specializes in server, desktop, network, and storage virtualization.
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Mary has three little balls she throws 1999 of them away how many does mary have now?
Answer:
3-1999 gives you your answer
Explanation:
the most common condition involving impairments in vision and hearing that worsens over time is
The most common condition involving impairments in vision and hearing that worsens over time is Usher Syndrome.
Usher Syndrome is the most common condition that involves progressive vision and hearing impairments, ultimately leading to deafness and blindness in affected individuals.
Usher Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects both hearing and vision. It is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which is present at birth or early childhood, and retinitis pigmentosa, a progressive vision disorder that leads to blindness over time. There are three types of Usher Syndrome, each with varying degrees of severity.
Type 1 is the most severe, with profound hearing loss and vision problems beginning in early childhood. Type 2 involves moderate to severe hearing loss and later onset of vision problems. Type 3 has variable hearing loss and vision problems that develop later in life. There is currently no cure for Usher Syndrome, but early intervention, such as cochlear implants and other supportive therapies, can help improve the quality of life for affected individuals.
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Joes manager , Claire , has a very busy week at the warehouse. Joe has been places in finding a room to put all the new deliveries but he has some questions to ask Claire. Which shows he respects her time ? A. emailing clair a long list of questions. B. booking a 10 min meeting to ask the most urgent questions. C. booking a two hour meeting for tmr to discuss all the questions at once D. calling claire after work to discuss his questions
Answer:
B. booking a 10 minute meeting
What are three theories of mood disorders that emphasize learning and cognitive factors?
How long is pink eye contagious after starting antibiotics.
Answer:
About 24 hours after starting a course of antibiotics
Explanation:
I NEED A JOB SHAWDOWING ON A FIREFIGHTER THATS ONE PAGER
Answer:
mark me brilliant
Explanation:
Firefighter Job Shadowing Experience
On my job shadowing experience with a firefighter, I had the opportunity to observe and learn about the daily duties and responsibilities of a firefighter. The firefighter I shadowed was assigned to a local fire department and worked a 24-hour shift.
The day began with the firefighter conducting a thorough inspection of the fire truck, equipment, and personal protective gear. Once everything was checked, the firefighter took part in a group briefing with other firefighters, where they discussed the weather, local hazards, and any other pertinent information for the day.
Throughout the day, the firefighter carried out various tasks, such as responding to emergencies, conducting safety inspections, and participating in training exercises. During an emergency response, the firefighter remained calm and professional while quickly assessing the situation and determining the best course of action.
The firefighter used a variety of equipment, including hoses, axes, and ladders, to fight fires and rescue people in distress. The firefighter also provided assistance to other emergency responders, such as paramedics, when necessary.
During down times, the firefighter engaged in training exercises to ensure they are up to date on the latest firefighting techniques and procedures. They also conducted safety inspections of buildings, homes, and businesses to prevent potential fires.
In conclusion, my job shadowing experience with a firefighter provided me with a unique insight into the life of a firefighter. I learned about the important role they play in protecting the community, the skills and training required to carry out their duties, and the sacrifices they make to keep people safe. Overall, it was an eye-opening and rewarding experience that gave me a newfound appreciation for the work of firefighters.
The nurse is assessing an older adult client who is having difficulty with mobility. assessment reveals that the client has stiff and awkward muscle movements. the nurse identifies this as?
The nurse identifies this as spasticity.
What is nursing assessment?Nursing assessment is defined as the systematic and a professional way a nurse uses to gather information about the well being of a patient.
The information that is gathered from the patient may include the following:
physiological, psychological, sociological, and spiritual status of the patient.The assessment that reveals stiff and awkward muscle movement can be identified by the nurse as spasticity.
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