Option D) The proteins on its surface and that of the host determine a virus's host range.
The variety of host creatures that a given virus may infect is referred to as the virus's host range. The compatibility between the proteins on the surface of the virus and the surface of the host cell is one of the most crucial elements that determine the host range.
Viral attachment proteins or viral envelope proteins are examples of unique proteins found on the outer surface of viruses that enable them to recognize and bind to certain receptors on the surface of host cells. For the virus to successfully connect to and enter the host cell, the surface proteins on both the virus and the host cell must be compatible.
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Suppose you are an architect from a
cold climate who has been asked to design a building
for Tucson, Arizona, where the temperature averages
22°C and can reach 50°C in summer. What do you
know about keeping buildings warm that will help
a building stay cool in hot weather
The thickness of Earth’s crust depends upon _______.
a. whether it is continental or oceanic
b. the temperature of the outer core
c. how volcanically active the region is
d. all of the above
Answer:
Its C
Explanation:
what are the functions of a cyclin during the cell cycle ? 1. activate a cdk 2. direct a cdk to its targets. 3. inhibit a cdk. 4. control cdk activity through phosphorylation of the cyclin. 5. control cdk activity through synthesis and destruction of the cyclin.
A CDK is activated when a cyclin performs its functions during the cell cycle. The correct answer is 1. activate a CDK.
The development of cyclin/CDKs controls the cell-cycle movement by means of phosphorylation of objective qualities, like growth silencer protein retinoblastoma (Rb). Mitogenic signals induce cyclin/CDK activation, which is inhibited by cell-cycle checkpoint activation in response to DNA damage.
Cell cycle checkpoints are controlled by kinases that are triggered by cyclins. The regulation of the cell cycle depends on CDKs.
Cyclin A/CDK2 phosphorylates CDC6 and E2F1 to end the S phase; It drives the cell cycle from the S phase to the G2 phase and then activates CDK1 through cyclin A, which causes cells to enter the M phase. The complex cyclin B/CDK1 maintains CDK1 activity during mitosis.
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How do doctors use humans DNA to improve humans health?
Answer:
The medical and scientific visionaries who planned the Human Genome Project Already, doctors can better categorize some cancers by examining the outside of the protein-coding regions of our DNA, for example in the robust medical informatics tool that healthcare providers can readily use to
Explanation:
if two genes are homologous, then it can be said that they are
if two genes are homologous, then it can be said that they are derived from different ancestral genes but have a similar function.
What does it signify when two genes have a homologous sequence?There are identical genes in the same order on each of a homologous pair of chromosomes, albeit there may be variations between them that result in different alleles. There may be functional consequences for some of these allele mutations, but not all of them.
Chromosomes with alleles for the same type of gene are referred to as "homologous chromosomes" (one from the sperm and one from the egg). A homologous pair's chromosomes resemble one another but are not identical. Despite having the exact same genes in the exact same order, the alleles for each trait may differ.
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___ unwinds. ___ is transcribed from ___. ___ matches up to complementary triplet on ___ on the ribosome. The ribosome attaches complementary amino acids to the ___. ___ molecules are released once they have attached their complementary amino acids. Translation is completed when the end of the ___ strand is released. Protein is released.
Transcription unwinds DNA. mRNA is transcribed from DNA. tRNA matches up to complementary triplet on mRNA on the ribosome. The ribosome attaches amino acids to the tRNA. tRNA molecules are released. Translation is completed when the end of the mRNA.
What are tRNA, mRNA, and DNA?The creation of genetic material and proteins requires the key macromolecular biological components DNA, tRNA, and mRNA. DNA and RNA are the two main forms of genetic molecules, with tRNA and mRNA being two distinct types of RNA.
What does tRNA do?A well-established function in protein synthesis belongs to transfer RNA (tRNA). Between the genetic instructions contained in nucleic acid sequences and the protein products encoded in genes, the tRNA molecule functions as an adapter.
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Part A Which of the following events occur during eukaryotic translation elongation?
1 Codons in the mRNA are recognized by rRNAs, and tRNAs add the amino acid to the polypeptide chain.
2 The small ribosomal subunit binds with a specific tRNA to the mRNA and scans for a start codon.
3 A tRNA binds a codon and the ribosome adds amino acids from each tRNA to the polypeptide chain.
4 A protein recognizes the stop codon and the ribosome dissociates from the mRNA.
5 The ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA and dissociates, releasing the polypeptide chain.
The events that occur during eukaryotic translation elongation are: Codons in the mRNA are recognized by rRNAs, and tRNAs add the amino acid to the polypeptide chain. A tRNA binds a codon and the ribosome adds amino acids from each tRNA to the polypeptide chain. Option 1 and Option 3 both are the events that occur during eukaryotic translation elongation.
How does translation elongation take place in eukaryotic cells?Translation elongation in eukaryotic cells takes place as follows:
As the ribosome moves along the mRNA, it exposes a new codon. Then, a tRNA molecule, which bears an anticodon complementary to the mRNA codon, enters the ribosome's A site.
A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and the carboxyl end of the growing protein chain after the new amino acid is introduced. The ribosome transfers the polypeptide chain to the tRNA in the A site via the ribosome's peptidyl transferase activity.
The tRNA in the A site then exits, whereas the ribosome translocates one codon closer to the 3′ end of the mRNA. A new cycle begins as soon as the next codon is exposed. The ribosome stops translating until a stop codon is encountered. Finally, the new protein is released from the ribosome by the hydrolysis of GTP, which allows the release factors to work together.
Hence the correct options are 1 & 3.
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Why do identical twins have some DIFFERENCES?
A. The same genes are expressed because of their environment.
B. Different genes are expressed due to their environment.
C. Their DNA is different.
Answer:
B. Different genes are expressed due to their environment.
Explanation:
I think it's this one because it makes the most sense, but I'm still not sure sorry
Answer:
B. Different genes are expressed due to their environment.
Explanation:
Some identical twins can have different heights and weights. This is because height and weight are controlled by what you eat as well your DNA. Differences in diet can start earlier than you might imagine. When the twins are growing inside the uterus, there can be differences in how well they connect to the placenta.
There are many advantages to the codis str system. advantages include all but
a)
str profiles can be determined with very small amounts of dna.
b)
the data are digital, and ideally suited for computer databases.
there are distinct phenotypes or traits associated with the codis str loci.
laboratories worldwide are contributing to the analysis of str allele
frequency in different human populations.
There are many advantages to the code system. advantages include all but there are distinct phenotypes or traits associated with the codes str loci.
What are distinct phenotypes?Distinct phenotypes refer to observable characteristics or traits that are expressed due to combinations of genetic traits. These traits may be physical, behavioral, or physiological. Distinct phenotypes are the result of the genetic makeup of an individual, as well as environmental factors. Examples of distinct phenotypes include physical features such as eye and hair color, as well as behavioral traits such as intelligence, anxiety levels, and aggression. By studying distinct phenotypes, scientists are able to understand the genetic and environmental factors that influence how an individual develops. This information can then be used to improve the quality of life for individuals and to better understand the genetic basis of health and disease.
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what is the living planet called?
Which living planet? Do you mean Earth or what ever else?
Answer:
Earth
Explanathope its the awnser you need
Identify the types of experimental designs. (check all that apply.) multiple select question. single-subject design between-subjects design multi-subjects design within-subjects design
The types of experimental designs include single-subject design, between-subjects design, and within-subjects design.
Single-subject design involves testing a single participant over a period of time to observe changes in behavior.
Between-subjects design involves randomly assigning participants to different groups and exposing each group to a different treatment or condition.
Within-subjects design involves exposing participants to all conditions or treatments and measuring the effects on each individual.
Multi-subjects design is not a recognized experimental design type, as it could refer to either between-subjects or within-subjects designs depending on the specifics of the study.
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Which one is the answer
I think it's b. there's pressure and high or low temperatures there. I mean... it would only make sense, right?
Answer:
A, C, and D
Explanation:
these are all extreme environment in which it sounds like this organism can survive
In plants, most differentiated cells retain Group of answer choices a complete set of their genes and retain the ability to express those genes under certain circumstances. a complete set of their genes but lose the ability to express most of those genes. only a tiny fraction of their original set of genes. the ability to dedifferentiate but then cannot return to their original differentiated state.
Answer:
due to their excessive numbers in tissues. ... because their developmental potential is limited to certain tissues. In plants, most differentiated cells retain. A) only a tiny fraction of their original set of genes.
Explanation:
hmm i think this is your answer
Which of the following is made of cells?
Answer:
need more information to answer this question
The cells in the nervous system that handle information processing are called.
Answer:
The answer is Neurons
Explanation:
They are categorized as receptors, interneurons, or effectors, depending on their function.
A scientist hypothesized that oxygen atoms from both carbon dioxide and water are used to make glucose during photosynthesis. However, experimental results using oxygen isotopes showed that all of the oxygen from the water ended up in the oxygen molecules that were produced. None of the oxygen from water was found in glucose.
What should the scientist do to best gain scientific understanding of this topic?
a. Analyze the results, and change the experimental methods to retest the hypotheses in a different way.
b. Discard the faulty results that do not support the original hypothesis, and repeat the experiment using the same methods.
c. Analyze the procedural errors that took place in the experiment, and summarize these in a conclusion statement.
d. Repeat the experiment and adjust new data to support the original hypothesis.
The scientist Discard the faulty results that do not support the original hypothesis, and repeat the experiment using the same methods; option B.
What is an experiment?An experiment is a research or test conducted in order to prove or disprove a hypothesis.
An experiment is conducted using steps or procedures based on an explanation given to an observation.
The results of the experiment by the scientist disproved his hypothesis.
Therefore, the scientist should discard the faulty results that do not support the original hypothesis, and repeat the experiment using the same methods.
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Redacta un escrito dónde expliques como está formado(un ecosistema), menciona ejemplos y como sigue una estabilidad por el equilibrio entre los factores físicos y biologícos en el ecosistema
Answer:
Un ecosistema esta formado por facotres abioticos y bioticos.
Los factores bioticos son aquellos que presentan signos vitales, es decir que cumplen con la vida, metabolismo, respiracion, entre otras funciones vivas.
Los factores abietos son aquellos que no tienen vida pero con los que los factores bioticos intercambian energia, un ejemplo de esto son las rocas, los vientos, los sedimentos, la tierra fertil.
Los factores bioticos serian los organismos vivos como los animales, que al funcionar como sistemas abiertos de intercambio de energia constante mantienen un equilibrio fisico biologico con los factores bioticos.
Explanation:
Los ecosistemas cumplen con una cadena que no debe romperse ni faltar ningun eslabon, si esta continuidad se interrumpe con la extincion de una especie como animal o vegetal el ecosistema variará, y cambiara toda su conformacion.
Es un conjunto de factores bioticos y abioticos en armonia que se complementan e intercambian energia entre si de manera ordenada en eslabones, si uno de estos eslabones se rompe, se extingue, o se modifica por intervencion del hombre u otros factores TODO el escosistema se verá modificado o afectado.
Please answer asap
Which of the following is an example of physical weathering?
Acid rain reacting with rocks.
Animals burrowing in the ground which causes rocks to become exposed and then weathered away by other elements like wind.
Plants that produce acid and slowly wear the rocks down.
Rocks that contain iron and react with oxygen and water which causes rocks to turn a red color.
what would happen if the ras protein, a g-protein, could not break down gtp and reverted to its inactive form?
a. continuous cell division
b. cells would run out of GTP
c. no significant effect
d. phosphorylation cascade would stop
If the ras protein, a G-protein, is unable to break down GTP and reverts to its inactive form, then the phosphorylation cascade would stop. The answer is d. The phosphorylation cascade would stop.
Ras protein is a small G protein. It is a family of small, membrane-bound GTPases that transmit signals within cells.
The proteins get their name from the fact that they bind to guanosine nucleotides, with GTP being the most important. G proteins, which function as molecular switches inside cells, are a type of signaling molecule.
When G proteins bind to guanosine triphosphate (GTP), they become active. When they bind to guanosine diphosphate (GDP), they become inactive.
They bind and hydrolyze GTP, which is a phosphate-containing guanine nucleotide, to regulate the activation of other signaling proteins.
For G proteins to stop working, GTP must be broken down. If the ras protein, a G-protein, cannot break down GTP and reverts to its inactive form, the phosphorylation cascade would stop.
So, it would stop the ras pathway from sending signals, which would stop further cell growth and differentiation.
So, the answer is d. The phosphorylation cascade would stop.
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Think carefully about the information in the box before writing your answer.
How do fossils provide evidence for the theory of evolution?
Your answer should be no more than 1,750 characters in length.
Be sure to -
clearly state your thesis.
organize and develop your ideas effectively.
• choose your words carefully.
edit your writing for grammar, mechanics, and spelling.
●
How do fossils provide evidence for the theory of evolution?
●
●
Answer:
Fossil remains have been found in rocks of all ages. Fossils of the simplest organisms are found in the oldest rocks, and fossils of more complex organisms in the newest rocks. This supports Darwin's theory of evolution, which states that simple life forms gradually evolved into more complex ones.
Evidence for early forms of life comes from fossils. By studying fossils, scientists can learn how much (or how little) organisms have changed as life developed on Earth.
There are gaps in the fossil record because many early forms of life were soft-bodied, which means that they have left few traces behind. What traces there were may have been destroyed by geological activity. This is why scientists cannot be certain about how life began.
Fossils provide a snap shot of the past and allow us to study how much or how little organisms have changed as life developed on Earth.
Describe the function of the mammalian skin
Answer:
Provides a a protective barrier against mechanical, thermal and physical injury and hazardous substances. Prevents loss of moisture. Reduces harmful effects of UV radiation
Explanation:
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Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except
increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone).
increased levels of angiotensin II.
increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
increased blood volume.
increased levels of aldosterone.
Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
The nerve cells in the hypothalamus produce Anti-diuretic hormone. Anti-diuretic hormone acts on the kidneys and blood vessels to lower blood pressure. Antidiuretic hormone levels above a certain threshold narrow (constrict) blood artery, raising blood pressure.
Angiotensin II increases salt, body water, and blood pressure all at once. Blood arteries become constricted (narrowed) when angiotensin II is present in high level, which increases blood pressure.
By altering cardiac output, variation in blood volume have an impact on arterial pressure. Rising blood volume leads to an increase in central venous pressure. When there is more fluid present, more of it presses against the artery walls, increasing the pressure.
The kidneys release potassium through urine when aldosterone is present. Water retention results from an increase in salt in your bloodstream. Blood pressure and blood volume are raised as a result.
ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) is released by the heart in response to elevated blood pressure and blood salt levels. It stimulates salt excretion, reduces blood volume, and relaxes the vessel when it binds to its receptor in the kidney and blood vessels. By reducing venous compliance, atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) lowers mean circulatory filling pressure and arterial blood pressure.
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Jolene's friends are using weight-loss supplements to lose a lot of weight in a short amount of time. Jolene didn't think it was a safe idea but her friends continued to encourage her to try them, and she is having trouble standing her ground. What can Jolene say to help her handle this difficult situation?
Explanation:
Jolene should give her pros and cons about the weight loss supplements she should do more research so that whenever she's going to talk to her friends she has facts on her hand
Answer:
"I am worried that those supplements might be unhealthy, and I am uncomfortable with you pressuring me to try them."
Explanation:
took the quiz and got it right :)
hope I helped ~~~
The DVD experiment worked to prove that spontaneous generation:
A. Can cause bacterial growth.
B. occurs when using peptide a mixture.
C. does not cause bacterial growth.
D. Cannot occur when an auto clave is used.
The DVD experiment is not found here but the idea of spontaneous generation is wrong and therefore does not cause bacterial growth (Option C).
What is spontaneous generation?Spontaneous generation is an erroneous idea form the past indicating that organisms can emerge without previous life.
This idea was refuted by the experiment of L. Pasteur who showed spontaneous generation does not occur.
In conclusion, the DVD experiment is not found here but the idea of spontaneous generation is wrong and therefore does not cause bacterial growth.
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Illustrated below is a model summarizing Cas9/sgRNA-DNA interactions. Shown below it is the start of a coding region within the first exon of a gene. The bracketed codon indicates the correct reading frame of this gene. The lower strand of the gene is used as the template during the transcription of mRNA from this gene. You wish to use CRISPR/Cas9 to make a double-stranded DNA break within the open reading frame (ORF) of this gene.
Suppose you use 5' AGG as the PAM sequence, which sequence could you use for your sgRNA?
...CTGAGATCTCATGTACTAGTCCGTCATTACTGTACTTCTCTTGACAGGCTGTGTCGTGGAATATCTAAGAGCT-3'
...GACTCTAGAGTACATGATCAGGCAGTAATGACATGAAGAGAACTGTCCGACACAGCACCTTATAGATTCTCGA-5'
a) 5' CTGTGTCGTGGAATATCTAA 3'
b) 3' GACACAGCACCTTATAGATT 5'
c) 5' ATTACTGTACTTCTCTTGAC 3'
d) 3' TAATGACATGAAGAGAACTG 5'
Correct sgRNA sequence for making a double-stranded DNA break within the ORF of this gene using CRISPR/Cas9 is 3' GACACAGCACCTTATAGATT 5'.
The correct option is B .
To design the sgRNA sequence for targeting the open reading frame (ORF) of the gene using CRISPR/Cas9, we need to identify the appropriate sequence that complements the PAM sequence (5' AGG) and is located adjacent to the target site.
In this case, we want to find the sequence that pairs with the PAM sequence (5' AGG) in the lower strand of the gene. The sgRNA sequence should be complementary to the target DNA sequence adjacent to the PAM sequence.
Comparing the given options with the lower strand of the gene sequence, we can see that option (b) 3' GACACAGCACCTTATAGATT 5' is the correct sgRNA sequence. This sequence pairs with the PAM sequence (5' AGG) and is located adjacent to the target site within the open reading frame (ORF) of the gene.
Hence , B is the correct option
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A product is sold at a price of $120 per unit and its variable cost is $80 per unit. The fixed expenses of the business are $8,000 per year. Find (i) BEP in $ and units, (ii) profits made when sales are 240 units. Calculate the profit and do a CVP Analysis.
(i) BEP in $: $8,000
BEP in units: 100 units
(ii) Profits made when sales are 240 units: $4,800
(i) BEP in $ and units:
To find the Break-Even Point (BEP) in dollars, we need to divide the fixed expenses by the contribution margin per unit. The contribution margin per unit is the selling price minus the variable cost per unit.
BEP in $ = Fixed expenses / Contribution margin per unit
BEP in $ = $8,000 / ($120 - $80) = $8,000 / $40 = $8,000
The BEP in dollars is $8,000.
To find the BEP in units, we divide the fixed expenses by the contribution margin ratio.
BEP in units = Fixed expenses / Contribution margin ratio
Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin per unit / Selling price per unit
Contribution margin ratio = ($120 - $80) / $120 = $40 / $120 = 1/3
BEP in units = $8,000 / (1/3) = $8,000 * 3 = 300 units
The BEP in units is 300 units.
(ii) Profits made when sales are 240 units:
To calculate the profit, we need to subtract the total costs (fixed costs + variable costs) from the total sales.
Variable costs = Variable cost per unit * Number of units sold
Variable costs = $80 * 240 = $19,200
Total costs = Fixed expenses + Variable costs
Total costs = $8,000 + $19,200 = $27,200
Profit = Total sales - Total costs
Profit = (Selling price per unit * Number of units sold) - Total costs
Profit = ($120 * 240) - $27,200
Profit = $28,800 - $27,200
Profit = $1,600
The profit made when sales are 240 units is $1,600.
CVP Analysis:
Cost-Volume-Profit (CVP) analysis is a tool used to analyze the relationship between costs, volume, and profits. It helps in understanding how changes in sales volume affect profitability.
In this case, the CVP analysis can be performed using the given data:
Sales revenue = Selling price per unit * Number of units sold
Sales revenue = $120 * 240 = $28,800
Variable costs = Variable cost per unit * Number of units sold
Variable costs = $80 * 240 = $19,200
Contribution margin = Sales revenue - Variable costs
Contribution margin = $28,800 - $19,200 = $9,600
Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin / Sales revenue
Contribution margin ratio = $9,600 / $28,800 ≈ 0.3333
Break-Even Point (BEP) in units = Fixed expenses / Contribution margin per unit
BEP in units = $8,000 / $40 = 200 units
Profit = (Selling price per unit * Number of units sold) - Total costs
Profit = ($120 * 240) - ($8,000 + $19,200)
Profit = $28,800 - $27,200
Profit = $1,600
By conducting a CVP analysis, we can determine the Break-Even Point, contribution margin, and analyze the profitability based on the given data.
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which of these was the second of the major events that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population?
A) the advent of agriculture
B) the industrial revolution
C) the discovery of vaccines and the discovery of antibiotics
The second major event that stimulated an increase in the size of the human population was B) the Industrial Revolution.
The advent of agriculture (A) was the first event, which allowed for the establishment of settled communities and a more stable food supply. This led to a gradual increase in population.
The Industrial Revolution, which began in the late 18th century, brought about significant technological advancements and improvements in infrastructure, such as the development of factories and efficient transportation systems. These innovations increased productivity and made essential goods more accessible, which in turn improved living standards and supported a higher population.
While the discovery of vaccines and antibiotics (C) has undoubtedly saved countless lives and contributed to population growth, this event took place after the Industrial Revolution. The widespread use of vaccines and antibiotics started in the 20th century, playing a crucial role in reducing mortality rates and allowing for a more rapid increase in population.
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D. Dalmation Dogs may have either black or liver (brown) spots.
1. Two black-spotted Dalmation parents produce a liver-spotted puppy.
a. What does this tell us about dominance in spot color?
b. What is the genotype of the liver-spotted puppy?
c. What is the genotype of the mother? Of the father?
d. List the genotypes and phenotypes of all puppies these
parents could produce.
PLS HELP ASAP WILL GIVE POINTS AND HELPERS HAND
a single sugar phosphate chain with nitrogenous bases attached along it describes a molecule o
A single sugar phosphate chain with nitrogenous bases attached along it is a molecule known as a nucleic acid.
These molecules are the building blocks of DNA, and are composed of a backbone made of alternating sugar and phosphate molecules, with nitrogenous bases attached. These nitrogenous bases come in four forms: adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine. These molecules form a chain that forms the basis of the genetic code.
The nitrogenous bases bind to each other in specific pairs, known as base pairs: adenine binds to thymine, while guanine binds to cytosine. These base pairs form the double helix of DNA. The sequence of the nitrogenous bases along the sugar phosphate chain determines the genetic code, which in turn determines the characteristics of an organism.
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Correct question is :
a single sugar phosphate chain with nitrogenous bases attached along it describes a molecule known as _____.
B). El pediatra de Carmen ha observado que esta niña presenta un desarrollo
desproporcionado en su crecimiento, cree que tiene acromegalia o gigantismo. Una de las
opciones de este pediatra para corroborar su idea es mandarle a hacer análisis a Carmen
sobre:
a. Niveles de producción de calcitonina.
b. Niveles de producción de la hormona del crecimiento.
c. Niveles de producción de la parathormona.
Answer:
B. Niveles de producción de la hormona del crecimiento.