Why was the MMPI revised, and what are the highlights of the changes made in creating the MMPI 2?

Answers

Answer 1

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a widely used psychological assessment tool for measuring personality traits and psychopathology. The MMPI was first developed in the 1940s,

and the original version (MMPI-1) has been revised to create the MMPI-2 (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2) to address various concerns and improve its psychometric properties.

There were several reasons for revising the MMPI to create the MMPI-2, including:

Updating norms: The original MMPI was based on a normative sample that was collected several decades ago. The MMPI-2 was revised to reflect more current norms and ensure that the test results are relevant to contemporary populations.

Addressing concerns about item content: Some of the items in the original MMPI were considered outdated, offensive, or culturally biased.

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Related Questions

A 56 year old woman is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. She is prescribed this medicine with lesser side effects

Answers

Answer:

osphena (ospemifene)

Explanation:

Osphena would be my guess

A nurse is caring for a client who is having a nonstress test performed. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 130 to 150/min, but there has been no fetal movement for 15 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

Immediately report the situation to the client's provider and prepare the client for induction of labor.

Encourage the client to walk around without the monitoring unit for 10 min, then resume monitoring

Offer the client a snack of orange juice and crackers.

Turn the client onto her left side.

Answers

The nurse should turn the client onto her left side. Option 4.

Nonstress test

The nonstress test is a prenatal test that evaluates the fetal heart rate (FHR) response to fetal movement. In this scenario, the client's FHR is within the normal range of 130 to 150 beats per minute, but there has been no fetal movement for 15 minutes, which is a concern.

In this situation, the nurse should first take measures to stimulate fetal movement before considering any further interventions. Turning the client onto her left side can improve blood flow to the fetus and stimulate fetal activity. The nurse should reposition the client and continue to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 10-15 minutes to see if there is any change in the fetal heart rate or fetal movement.

If there is no response to repositioning and further fetal stimulation, the nurse should report the situation to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

Thus, the appropriate action for the nurse to perform in this scenario is to turn the client onto her left side and monitor the FHR for any change.

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The concave region of an organ where structures enter and exit that organ is named what?.

Answers

Answer:

hilum

Explanation:

The concave region of an organ where structures enter and exit that organ is called the hilum

Which healthcare professional requires the greatest amount of education prior to working?
O neurosurgeon
O neurologist
O neuroscience nurse
O neuro physical therapist

Answers

I believe neurosurgeon

Answer: The answer to this would be Neurosurgeon.

Explanation: Just another thing that my mother learned while being an R.N. Hope this helps, Dee Dee.

The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. Which is the most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition?a. Posturingb. Vital signsc. Focal neurologic signsd. Level of consciousness

Answers

The most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition in a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury is the (d) level of consciousness.

Monitoring the child's level of consciousness can help identify any potential neurological changes and enable timely intervention. This is because changes in consciousness are often the earliest and most sensitive indicators of neurologic deterioration. However, the nurse should also assess for other important signs such as vital signs, focal neurologic signs, and posturing.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (d) Level of consciousness.

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What is the purpose of a Holter monitor test?

Answers

Answer: It records the electrical activity of the heart continuously over 24 hours or longer while you are away from the doctor's office

Answer:It continuously records the electrical activity of the heart for 24 hours or longer while you are away from the doctor's office.

Explanation:

how to apply eardrops to a 2 year old

Answers

Push their head down and drop them in there

baber u, blaha mj, mehran r. medication nonadherence: a challenging conundrum for clinical trials, patients, and clinicians. journal of the american college of cardiology. 2022 aug 23;80(8):779-82.

Answers

Finding and managing patient nonadherence is a difficulty for clinicians. They must effectively interact with patients, instill in them the value of medication adherence, and remove any obstacles that might be impeding adherence.

Non adherence to medication

The failure of a patient to comply to the recommended treatment regimen or medication plan is referred to as medication nonadherence. It can take many different forms, including missed doses, wrong dosages, and complete medication discontinuation. Healthcare nonadherence is a major problem since it can result in subpar treatment results, higher healthcare expenses, and a higher risk of consequences.

Medication nonadherence is a problem in clinical studies because it might skew the validity and dependability of the data. It is challenging to assess the genuine efficacy and safety of the medicine under test if participants do not follow the prescribed treatment schedule. Non-compliance can inject bias into the analysis of trial results and cloud that analysis, potentially producing false conclusions.

Non adherence can have detrimental effects on patients. It might lead to poor symptom management, illness progression, more hospital stays, and a lower quality of life. Nonadherence can be caused by a variety of things, such as forgetfulness, the difficulty of the treatment plan, pharmaceutical side effects, cost, a lack of knowledge or belief in the treatment's effectiveness, and individual circumstances.

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What nerve supplies the gluteus maximus?

Answers

The gluteus maximus muscle is primarily supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve, which is a branch of the sacral plexus.

The gluteus maximus is the largest and most superficial muscle in the gluteal region of the body. It is located in the buttocks and is responsible for hip extension, which involves moving the thigh backward, as well as external rotation and abduction of the hip joint. The gluteus maximus plays a crucial role in many everyday activities such as walking, running, and climbing stairs. It is also used extensively in sports activities such as jumping, sprinting, and weightlifting. Strengthening exercises for the gluteus maximus can help to improve athletic performance and prevent injuries, while weakness or injury to the muscle can result in decreased mobility and function.

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Using approximately 250-300 words and APA 7th Edition citations and references as appropriate, give examples of three major zoonotic diseases and compare their modes of transmission. Using your own ideas, explain how transmission of these zoonotic diseases might be prevented.

Answers

Zoonotic diseases are infections that can be transmitted between animals and humans. This response provides examples of three major zoonotic diseases, namely Rabies, Lyme disease, and Avian Influenza, and compares their modes of transmission. It then discusses potential strategies for preventing the transmission of these diseases.

Rabies is primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, commonly dogs, bats, raccoons, or foxes. The virus is present in the saliva of infected animals and can enter the human body through broken skin or mucous membranes.

Lyme disease is transmitted by the bite of infected black-legged ticks, commonly known as deer ticks. Ticks acquire the bacteria (Borrelia burgdorferi) by feeding on infected animals, such as mice or deer. Humans can get infected when bitten by an infected tick.

Avian Influenza, also known as bird flu, is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected birds or their droppings. In rare cases, the virus can be transmitted from birds to humans, causing severe respiratory illness. Human-to-human transmission is limited but can occur under certain circumstances.

Preventing the transmission of zoonotic diseases involves a multi-faceted approach:

Education and awareness: Promoting public education about the risks and preventive measures associated with zoonotic diseases, such as avoiding contact with wild or stray animals, practicing safe handling of pets, and proper tick avoidance techniques.

Vector control: Implementing measures to control disease-carrying vectors, such as ticks and mosquitoes, through the use of insecticides, habitat modification, and personal protective measures like wearing protective clothing and using insect repellents.

Vaccination: Vaccinating animals against zoonotic diseases, particularly pets and livestock, can help prevent their transmission to humans. Vaccination programs for animals, such as dogs and cats, can significantly reduce the risk of diseases like rabies.

Hygiene practices: Promoting good hygiene practices, including regular handwashing, proper food handling, and safe disposal of animal waste, can minimize the risk of infection.

Surveillance and early detection: Establishing surveillance systems to detect zoonotic diseases in animals and humans, enabling prompt identification, isolation, and treatment of infected individuals.

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What are four possible barriers to the promotion and uptake of health initiative information within the Maori community?. For each one, suggest ways in which these barriers could be overcome.​

Answers

Answer:

1. Language and Cultural Barriers:

Barrier: Language and cultural differences can undermine the conveyance of health information to the Māori community, especially if information is predominantly available in English.

Solution: Provide health initiative information in both English and Te Reo Māori. Furthermore, ensure it is culturally appropriate and sensitive. Involve Māori language experts and cultural advisors to ensure accurate translation and cultural relevance.

2. Lack of Trust and Representation:

Barrier: Historically, the Māori community experienced mistrust and marginalization from healthcare systems. This led to skepticism and lower engagement with health initiatives.

Solution: Engage and involve Māori community leaders, organizations, and health professionals in designing and delivering health initiatives. Ensure meaningful representation of Māori perspectives and values. Promoting trust and partnerships can eliminate these barriers.

3. Access and Equity:

Barrier: Limited access to healthcare services, geographical distance, and socioeconomic disparities can sabotage the promotion and uptake of health initiatives within the Māori community.

Solution: Implement initiatives that address health equity. These could include mobile health clinics, community outreach programs, and targeted initiatives in areas with higher Māori populations. Enhance accessibility by offering transportation options, utilizing digital technologies, and ensuring affordable healthcare services.

4. Cultural Relevance and Empowerment:

Barrier: Health initiatives that do not align with Māori cultural values, beliefs, and practices may not resonate with the community, resulting in lower engagement and uptake.

Solution: Involve Māori community in the planning and implementation of health initiatives. Integrate cultural protocols, values, and practices into program design. Emphasize a holistic approach to health incorporating Western and traditional Māori healing practices. Tailor messaging and communication strategies per Māori cultural preferences and communication channels.

Explanation:

Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These are called:
a. Psychological factors
b. Genetic predispositions
c. Environmental influences
d. Biosocial forces

Answers

Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These are called Biosocial forces. Biosocial forces are a mixture of biological, social, and environmental factors that interact with one another and influence behavior.

It refers to a combination of both biological and social factors. Factors like Genetics, brain structure, physiology, and the environment in which one grows up are also included in this. Human development is influenced by biosocial factors in a variety of ways. Biosocial factors that are influential in human development are genetics, brain structure, physiology, and the environment in which one develops. These factors can significantly impact our development. The environment we grow up in can also affect us, as well as our physical, mental, and social health. When we talk about mental health, it is very important to understand how biosocial factors are related to behavior.

Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These changes can lead to many other problems such as mental health disorders. The most common disorders are depression and anxiety, which are now becoming more prevalent. People suffering from chronic illnesses are prone to mental health problems. This is because these illnesses have an effect on the brain, which can lead to changes in mood and behavior.

Biosocial factors are a combination of biological, social, and environmental factors that interact with one another and influence behavior. These factors significantly impact our development. Our physical, mental, and social health is affected by the environment in which we grow up. Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior, leading to mental health disorders like depression and anxiety.

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Which of the four tissue types have intercellular junctions?

Answers

The four tissue types that have intercellular junctions are;epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue andnervous tissue.

Which element increase in a community as a direct result of gang activity

Answers

Answer:

The causes that originate the existence of youth gangs are similar to those that originate drug addiction, such as lack of communication and Page 26 16 understanding between parents and children, family disintegration, bad company and abandonment in which many young people live.

Explanation:

Gradually reduce your relationship with other known gang members. The less you are in the area, the better. Look for activities that keep you busy and away from that area. » I get a job in another neighborhood. Even if it is a part-time job, it will help you while breaking off the relationship with the gang.

A woman who has just become pregnant is used to drinking 2 pots of coffee a day. what adjustments should she make in her caffeine consumption

Answers

Answer:

limit coffee consumption to 2 cups a day

Explanation:

If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be. Group of answer choices 3 5 2 10

Answers

If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is two(2) times what it would otherwise be. option C

There are numerous factors that raise the risk of developing breast cancer in women. A first-degree relative who has been diagnosed with breast cancer raises a woman's risk. It has been observed that a woman who has a mother, daughter, or sister who has been diagnosed with breast cancer has a higher risk of developing the disease herself. Therefore, it is recommended that women who have a first-degree relative with breast cancer should consider early screenings and consultations with their physicians. They may also want to start breast cancer screening earlier than other women, for instance, having yearly mammograms starting at age 40. It is necessary for women to conduct a thorough examination once in every 6 months or a year to avoid any such complication. If the cancer is detected at an early stage it can be eradicated from the body by proper medication and chemotherapy.

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Question 25 (4 points)
Medical______
is special vocabulary that is used in healthcare and is often formed from Latin and Greek word parts
1)Latin
2)language
3)coding
4)terminology

Answers

4) terminology
have a great day!
answer
it’s 4
have a good day

A physician ordered 1000ml of Iv solution to run over a 24 hour period. The drop factor of the iv tubing is 10gtts/ml. You would infuse

Answers

Answer:

How do you calculate IV drop factor?

If you simply need to figure out the mL per hour to infuse, take the total volume in mL, divided by the total time in hours, to equal the mL per hour. For example, if you have 1,000 mL NS to infuse over 8 hours, take 1,000 divided by 8, to equal 125 mL/hr. To calculate the drops per minute, the drop factor is needed.

a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.

Answers

You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.

Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.

The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.

We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.

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which harmful effects occurred to crop due to weeds?which steps can be taken to remove weeds short answer questions​

Answers

Answer:

Weeds are unwanted crops found on the soil. Weeds could grow in the midst of crops planted for harvesting. They compete with the crops for sunlight, water and other mineral resources. This renders the crops to have a stunted growth and low yield.

Weeds can be removed by uprooting them , by using cutlasses or spade to remove them or by the application of herbicides which selectively kills the weeds present .

Client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of neutropenia which intervention should nurse include inplaning care for this client ? Select all that appy

Answers

What are the choices for the question???

In your own words explain the steps into creating a vaccine.

55 points

Answers

Put the fluid in the bottle.
Put the bottle in the shot. Give it to someone.
I would start by creating a substance that is safe to go into some human body and once it is safe and tested on maybe a dead body I would then get it approved by the nation and I would vaccinate everybody that I could who had it so that everyone could be healthy I would also like to create less pain when it goes in so I would also do a much thinner needle and a lot of fluid that would kill a virus or something.

There is evidence that some people can undergo painful procedures with no anesthesia other than hypnosis.

True or false ?

Answers

Answer:

This is true

Explanation:

It's been proven in some, but not all, studies

How do u eat jumbo jalapenos ? ouuu

Answers

They are not that bad to be honest

An illness due to an organism that causes disease in people with weakened immune systems is known as.

Answers

These infections are called
"opportunistic infections" because
they take advantage of weak
immune systems.

Answer:

opportunistic infections

Explanation:

Where was the first recognized firefighting force, known as the Familia Publica, organized?

Rome

London

New York

Philadelphia

Answers

Answer:Who were the Familia Publica? The first recognized firefighting force organized in ancient Rome.

Explanation:

What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel?

Answers

CTS happens when the enlargement of the carpal tunnel in your wrist pins one of your nerves (median nerve).

What is carpal tunnel?

A nerve in your wrist is compressed by carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).

Your hand and fingers experience tingling, numbness, and discomfort as a result. It is frequently treatable by oneself, although recovery might take months.

Carpal tunnel syndrome can be relieved by giving your hand a rest and providing it with wrist support.

Some people require surgery or steroid injections.

As the carpal tunnel in your wrist expands and compresses a nerve, carpal tunnel syndrome develops.

Hand movements that are repeated can contribute to it.

CTS occurs when one of your nerves is pinched by the swelling of the carpal tunnel in your wrist (median nerve).

Therefore, CTS happens when the enlargement of the carpal tunnel in your wrist pins one of your nerves (median nerve).

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The AED has failed to find a shockable rhythm. What is the next step?
Health Center 21
1)Remove the pads and continue CPR.
2) Immediately continue CPR.
3) Wait for the AED to request another rhythm check.
4)Reposition the pads and try again.

Answers

2) immediately continue CPR

An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?

Answers

I can only provide some general insights, so it's important to note that I am not a lawyer, and legal cases can vary depending on jurisdiction and specific circumstances. In a situation where the biological father of a child born through in vitro fertilization (IVF) is different from the intended father, complex legal and ethical considerations arise.

1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.

2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.

3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.

Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.

It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.

A registered nurse with an associate degree in nursing (adn) is found by the bon to have violated npa section 301. 452(b)(5) after the bon obtains evidence that the nurse falsely claimed to have a master of science in nursing (msn) degree on an application for employment in a nursing position. This conduct by the rn would also be considered a violation of

Answers

The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) Code of Ethics is the ethical foundation of the nursing profession. As such, the Code of Ethics sets forth a standard of conduct and behavior for registered nurses (RNs) that must be adhered to in order to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public.

In this case, the RN has violated NCSBN Code of Ethics section 301.452(b)(5), which states: “A nurse shall not misrepresent his or her qualifications for employment or practice.” This includes any false claims of education, training, or experience.

The RN in question falsely claimed to have a Master of Science in Nursing (MSN) degree on an application for employment in a nursing position. This conduct is not only in violation of the NCSBN Code of Ethics, but it is also a violation of the Nursing Practice Act (NPA). The NPA requires every RN to practice nursing within the limits of their education and training, and the RN in this case has not done so due to their false claims of education.

By misrepresenting their qualifications, the RN has put their patients and the public at risk, as they are not qualified to perform the duties of a nurse with an MSN degree. This conduct has serious consequences and could potentially lead to disciplinary action, including the revoking of the RN’s license.

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HELP The sum of two numbers is 25 and their difference is 1. Write and solve the system of equations to find the twonumbersBiggest Number =Smallest Number = What do traits of anatomically modern humans include? When an investor adds international stocks to his or her U.S. stock portfolio, Multiple Choice it will raise his or her risk relative to the risk he or she would face just holding U.S. stocks. he or she can reduce the risk of his or her portfolio. he or she will increase his or her expected return but must also take on more risk. it will have no impact on either the risk or the return of his or her portfolio. A line has a slope of 1 and passes through the point (3, 10). 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