On a six-sided die, each side has a number between 1 and 6. What is the probability of throwing a 3

Answers

Answer 1

The probability of throwing a 3 on a six-sided dice, where each side has a number between 1 and 6, is 1/6.

This is because there is one favorable outcome (rolling a 3) out of six possible outcomes (rolling a 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6). A six-sided die has six equally likely outcomes when rolled. These outcomes include the numbers 1 through 6. Since there is only one 3 on the die, the probability of rolling a 3 is the number of ways to get a 3 (which is 1) divided by the total number of possible outcomes (which is 6). This gives us a probability of 1/6 or approximately 0.167. In other words, if we roll the die many times, we can expect to get a 3 about one-sixth of the time.

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Related Questions

A firm is considering the purchase of a new machine to increase the output of an existing production process. Of all the machines considered, the management has narrowed the field to the machines represented by the cash flows shown as follows: Machine 1. Initial Investment (-$50,000). Annual Operating Income ($22,815)). [Machine 2 Initial Investment (-$60,000) . Annual Operating Income($25,995)) (Machine 3 (-$75,000). Annual Operating Income ($32,115)) (Machine 4 (-$80,000), Annual Operating Income ($34,371) Machine 5 ($100,000), Annual Operating Income (542,485)) If each of these machines provides the same service for 3 years and the minimum attractive rate of return is 12% which machine should be selected? (Hint: Choose the Machine that will provide the greatest income.) a. Machine 1 b. Machine 3 c. Machine 2 d. Machine 4 e. Machine 5

Answers

A production process is a way to use economic resources, such as labour, expensive machinery, or land, to create goods and services for customers.

Thus, The manufacturing process often deals with how to make things for sale efficiently and productively so that customers may get them quickly without sacrificing the product's quality or production.

Organizations can employ a variety of production techniques depending on their manufacturing goals, production numbers, and technology tools or software systems.

A critical aspect of a manufacturing manager's job is making broad-based production decisions that affect the productivity levels of product creation and sales.

Thus, A production process is a way to use economic resources, such as labour, expensive machinery, or land, to create goods and services for customers.

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Hi all any one help me?? ​

Hi all any one help me??

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

sorry i dont know

I just want ur points

Which one of the following answer options are your employers responsibility

Answers

Where are your answer options?

Answer:

Implement a hazard communication program

Explanation: i took the quiz

if a steam gauge is located 15 ft. above the steam header and if the gauge reads 450 psi, what is the pressure in the steam line?

Answers

The pressure in the steam line is 1,44 atm.

Streamlined defined as a graph showing the pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are in equilibrium at any temperature. Steam pressures and temperatures in current practice have reached 97–164 bar and 480–565°C or 593°C. The rate of enhancement in efficiency with enhancement in pressure becomes less as the pressure enhances. The steam work through from the boiler into the steam mains. Firstly, the pipework is cold and heat is transformed into it from the steam. The air surrounding the pipes is also cooler rather than the steam, so the pipework will begin to lose heat to the air. Insulation fitted around the pipe will reduce this heat loss considerably.

The height of a steam gauge = 15 ft = 4,572 m

the gauge reads 450 psi

1 psi = 14.7 atm

450 psi = 6,615 atm

We can use this formula to calculate the pressure:

P = F/h

Pressure (P) = 6,615 atm : 4,572 m = 1,44 atm

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All of the following statements with respect to manual transmission are true EXCEPT: Group of answer choices gears can be applied only when the clutch is depressed. when in gear, releasing the clutch connects the engine to the transmission. releasing the clutch pedal closes the contacts of the clutch safety switch. the transmission provides the best pulling power in the lowest gear.

Answers

All of the following statements with respect to manual transmission are true EXCEPT releasing the clutch pedal closes the contacts of the clutch safety switch.

What is the transmission?

Manual automobiles are useful due to the fact they normally value much less and are extra fuel-efficient. You can also see decreased upkeep prices and coverage prices. They additionally provide you higher management of the car for the reason that driver, now no longer the car, is in fee of converting gears.

With the pedal totally released, there's complete touch between the engine and the driveshaft, through the take hold of the plate, because of this the engine can observe energy immediately to the driveshaft. However, it's miles feasible to have the take hold of plate partly engaged, permitting the take hold of to slip.

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why is tubing sometimes coiled when installed in a car or vechile

Answers

Answer:

Coiled tubing is often used to carry out operations similar to wire lining.

There are two potential fall hazards in this image. What are they?

There are two potential fall hazards in this image. What are they?

Answers

Answer:

Lack of fall protection and Scaffold is overloaded

A motor car is travelling at 144km/h in a 90km/h speed zone .The driver suddenly sees speed camera 80m ahead before the camera can read the cars speed .
Calculate the deceleration required to comply with the speed limit before being caught by the camera

Answers

The deceleration required to comply with the speed limit before being caught by the camera is 6.094 meters per square second.

Let assume that the motor car decelerates at constant rate. Given the initial and final speeds (\(v_{o}\), \(v\)), in meters per second, and travelled distance (\(s\)), in meters, the deceleration (\(a\)), in meters per square second, is determined by this formula:

\(a = \frac{v^{2}-v_{o}^{2}}{2\cdot s}\)

If we know that \(v_{o} = 25\,\frac{m}{s}\), \(v = 40\,\frac{m}{s}\) and \(s = 80\,m\), then the deceleration required to comply with the speed limit is:

\(a = \frac{\left(25\,\frac{m}{s} \right)^{2}-\left(40\,\frac{m}{s} \right)^{2}}{2\cdot (80\,m)}\)

\(a = -6.094\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}\)

The deceleration required to comply with the speed limit before being caught by the camera is 6.094 meters per square second.

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Give me source code of Simple openGL project. ( without 3D or Animation) simple just.

Answers

Answer:

Use GitHub or stackoverflow for this answer

Explanation:

It helps with programming a lot

What is the driving force behind evolving technology?
is the main factor that drives the evolution of technology.

Answers

Creativity and Innovation.

Communication, Innovativeness, knowledge, quality of the product, and motivation...

A simple ideal Rankine cycle with water as the working fluid operates between the pressure limits of 4 MPa in the boiler and 5 kPa in the condenser and a turbine inlet temperature of 700°C. The boiler is sized to provide a steam flow of 50 kg/s. Determine the power produced by the turbine and consumed by the pump. Use steam tables.

Answers

The pump work = v3.dP = 57.18 x 0.001 x ( 4000 - 20) =227.57 KW

How to solve

here At T1 = 700 C and P1 = 4 Mpa, from steam tabel : h1 =3906.41 KJ/Kg and s1 = 7.62 KJ/Kg.K

now s1 = s2 = 7.62 KJ/Kg.K as 1-2 is isentropic

so at P2 = 20 Kpa and s2 = 7.62 KJ/Kg.K , fom steam table : h2 = 2513.33 KJ/Kg

a) power produced by turbine = m.( h1 - h2) = 57.18 x ( 3906.41 - 2513.33) = 79656.15 KW

b) at P3 = 20 Kpa, 3 = vf = 0.001 m^3/kg

so pump work = v3.dP = 57.18 x 0.001 x ( 4000 - 20) =227.57 KW

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A simple ideal Rankine cycle with water as the working fluid operates between the pressure limits of

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of refractory ceramics?
a. Ability to remain unreactive and inert in severe environments.
b. Ability to withstand high temperatures.
c. Ability to withstand low temperatures.
d. High strengths.
e. Thermally insulative.

Answers

the following are desirable characteristics of refractory ceramics

a. Ability to remain unreactive and inert in severe environments.

b. Ability to withstand high temperatures.

d. High strengths.

e. Thermally insulative.

The ability to withstand high temperatures is essential for refractory ceramics, as they are often used in high-temperature applications such as furnaces and kilns. The ability to remain unreactive and inert in severe environments is also important to ensure that the material does not react with the surrounding environment or other materials in the system, which could lead to degradation or failure of the component. High strength is desirable to prevent fracture or deformation under mechanical loads. Lastly, being thermally insulative is useful for applications where heat needs to be contained or controlled within a given space.

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Answers

Answer:

thats a really cool design or whatever you got there.

Explanation:

niceeeeeeee :)

How does the Center of Gravity of a Robot Relate to the Translational, Rotational, or Oscillatory Motion Associated with it?

Answers

The center of gravity, also known as the balance point or point of rotation when an object is permitted to freely rotate, is the average location of an object's weight.

Explain about the Gravity?

All objects with mass are attracted to one another by the gravitational attraction, which has a magnitude that is directly proportional to the masses of the two objects and inversely proportional to the square of their distance from one another.

By means of gravity, a planet or other body pulls items toward its core. All the planets are maintained in their orbits around the sun by the force of gravity.

Any particle of matter in the universe will gravitate toward any other with a force that varies directly as the product of the masses and inversely as the square of the distance between them, according to Newton's law of gravity.

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Give the principle, construction and working of Bourdan tube pressure gauge.

Answers

Answer:

Working Principle Of Bourdon Gauge

If a tube having oval cross section is subjected to pressure its cross section tends to change from oval to circular.

Construction of a Bordon Gauge

Bourdon tube gauges consist of a circular tube.

One end of the tube is fixed while the other end is free to undergo elastic deformation under the effect of pressure.

Fixed end is open and pressure which is to be measured is applied at the fixed end.

Free end is closed and undergoes deformation under the effect of pressure.

Due to applied pressure the circular tube tends to uncoil and become straight along the dotted line.

Working of Bourdon Gauge

As the pressure is applied at the fixed end free end undergoes deformation.

The free end is attached with sector which further meshes with the pinion on which pointer is mounted.

Deformation of the pointer is transferred to pointer via this mechanism.

As a result point undergoes deflection and shows the pressure reading on calibrated dial.

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Give the principle, construction and working of Bourdan tube pressure gauge.
Give the principle, construction and working of Bourdan tube pressure gauge.

Answer:

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Explanation:

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tech a says that a slightly lean mixture offers good fuel economy and low exhaust emissions. Tech b says that a mixture that is too rich fouls spark plugs and causes incomplete burning. Who is correct

Answers

Answer:Both Techs A and B are correct. The correct option is C.
Explanation:
Exhaust emissions are gases that are expelled from vehicle engines and they include carbon monoxide, unburned fuel, nitrogen oxides and particulate matter such as mercury. These emissions can cause air pollution and green house effects which leads to climate changes. Low exhaust emissions can be achieved through the use of lean mixtures which has high air- fuel ratio and less emission. Therefore, Tech A is correct.
Rich mixtures are mixtures that are of low air- fuel ratios and it's burning in a diesel engine increases particulate matter emission, fouls spark plugs, causes incomplete burning. Therefore Tech B is equally correct. Hope this helps, thanks.

Calculate the buoyancy force acting on a partially immersed boat (V=5.0 m³). The density of water is 1000 kg/m³. Express your answer in both SI and U.S. Customary units.

Answers

CALCULATION :

SI units:
Buoyancy force = (Volume of water displaced) x (Density of water) x (Acceleration due to gravity)
Buoyancy force = (5.0 m³) x (1000 kg/m³) x (9.81 m/s²)
Buoyancy force = 49,050 N

U.S. Customary units:
Buoyancy force = (Volume of water displaced) x (Density of water) x (Acceleration due to gravity)
Buoyancy Force = (5.0 m³) x (62.4 lb/ft³) x (32.17 ft/s²)
Buoyancy Force = 11,230 lb

What is force ?

A force is anything that pushes or it pulls an object. The objects' interactions with one another are also what causes push and pull. Pressure can also be represented using terms like extend and compress.

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Two long pipes convey water between two reservoirs whose water surfaces are at different elevations. One pipe has a diameter twice that of the other; both pipes have the same length and the same value of f. If minor losses are neglected, what is the ratio of the flow rates through the two pipes?

Answers

Answer:

1 : 5.66 ≈ 1 : 6

Explanation:

Determine the ratio of the flow rates through the two pipes

The flow from the bigger pipe is 5.66 times greater than that from the smaller pipe hence the ratio of the flow rates is : 1 : 5.66

attached below is the detailed/remaining part of the  solution

Two long pipes convey water between two reservoirs whose water surfaces are at different elevations.

What is Cloud computing​

Answers

Answer:

the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the internet to store, manage, and process data, rather than a local server or a personal computer.

Explanation:

there u go

A rifle has a mass of 2.5 kg. if it is loosely gripped and a 1.5-g bullet is fired from it with a muzzle velocity of 1400 m/s. Determine the recoil velocity of the rifle just after firing.

Answers

Answer:

conservation of momentum

m1v1=m2v2

Explanation:

2.5×v1= 0.0015×1400

v1= 2.1/2.5= 0.84m/s

If the goal is to power three-phase AC motors, what kind of power distribution panel would you want to use?

Answers

There are different kinds of Ac motors. If the goal is to power three-phase AC motor, the three-phase motor can be run from a single-phase power source.

It is possible to run a 3 phase motor on single phase power?

The act of running a three phase motor on single phase power is very possible. The thing one has to do is  to connect or wire the single phase power to the input side of the variable frequency drive that one has and then connect or wire the three phase power of one's motor to the output part of the drive.

Conclusively, A three phase system is known to be able to send a lot of power when viewed with the single phase system.  The three circuit conductors is known to have three alternating currents

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10/A part of the implementation of the LC-3 architecture is shown in the following diagram.a. What information does Y provide? b. The signal X is the control signal that gates the gated D latch. Is there an error in the logic that produces X?

Answers

a) Y provides the information about the P condition code.

b) For the branch instruction (BR) opcode (0000) in the given logic, the value of signal X is 1.

How is the architecture used?

We are given an implementation of the LC-3 architecture in question.

a) Y provides the information about the P condition code so we can say that it is a P condition code.

Here in the given diagram data, there is a global bus that is tested for ([15] == 0). AND (we can say that there is at least 1 bit in [14:0]==1) => It is representing that the value on the bus is positive and also non-zero.

Also, this value will only be stored in  P condition code register which is a single gated d-latch register only if  it is write-enabled by X.

For any pf the seven instructions that write to the GPRs, It is testing the opcode (IR[15:12]).

b) Answer: -

For the D latch, signal X is giving an error.

In IR instruction, the opcode field is matching with the opcode that is used to change the condition code registers.

Also, for the branch instruction (BR) opcode (0000) in the given logic, the value of signal X is 1.

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10/A part of the implementation of the LC-3 architecture is shown in the following diagram.a. What information



Tech A says an atom with more electrons than protons has an overall positive charge.

Tech B says not all atoms can give up or accept electrons easily. Who is correct?

Answers

Main answer: Tech B is correct. Explanation: An atom with more electrons than protons has an overall negative charge, not a positive charge. This is because electrons carry a negative charge while protons carry a positive charge. Tech A's statement is therefore incorrect. On the other hand, Tech B's statement is correct. Some atoms have a stronger attraction to their electrons and may not easily give them up or accept additional electrons. This is due to factors such as the number of valence electrons and the electronegativity of the atom. Therefore, not all atoms can easily give up or accept electrons. The main answer is that Tech B is correct. Explanation: Tech A's statement is incorrect because an atom with more electrons than protons has an overall negative charge, not a positive one. This is because electrons are negatively charged and protons are positively charged. Explanation: Tech B's statement is correct because not all atoms can give up or accept electrons easily. The ease of giving up or accepting electrons depends on the atom's electron configuration, specifically the valence electrons. Atoms with a full or nearly full outer electron shell are less likely to give up or accept electrons, while atoms with only a few valence electrons are more likely to do so.

Tech B is correct because his statement accurately reflects the diverse nature of atoms regarding their electron transfer capabilities.

Can all atoms easily give up or accept electrons?

Tech B is correct in stating that not all atoms can easily give up or accept electrons. The ability of an atom to gain or lose electrons depends on its atomic structure and the distribution of its electrons in the outermost energy level, known as the valence shell.

Atoms strive to achieve a stable electron configuration typically by obtaining a full valence shell with eight electrons (the octet rule), which is more stable. The elements with fewer than four or more than four valence electrons are typically more reactive as they either tend to gain or lose electrons to achieve a stable configuration.

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Discuss types of environmental hazards and impact of the environmental hazards.​

Answers

An environmental hazard is a substance, state or event which has the potential to threaten the surrounding natural environment and/or adversely affect human's health. This term incorporates topics like pollution, natural disasters and human-made hazards. Health studies investigate the human health effects of exposure to environmental hazards ranging from chemical pollutants to natural, technological or terrorist disasters. The environment in which we live can be considered as having three fundamental sets of components, physical, chemical, biological. Associations between an exposure and an adverse health effect do not, on their own, prove that the former is the cause of the latter. Many other non-causal associations could explain the findings. Physical hazards involve environmental hazards that can cause harm with or without contact. Examples are earthquakes, electromagnetic fields, floods, light pollution, noise pollution, vibration, x-rays etc. Radioactivity is associated with an exposure dependent risk of some cancers notably leukaemia. The scientific evidence of adverse health effects from general environmental exposure to these fields is "not proven". If there are adverse effects yet to be proven, the risk is probably likely to be small. Chemical substances cause significant damage to the environment. Tobacco smoke is the single biggest known airborne chemical risk to health, whether measured in terms of death rates or ill-health. To a much lesser degree of risk, these adverse effects apply to non-smokers exposed passively to sidestream tobacco smoke. Health effects of concern are asthma, bronchitis, lung cancer and similar lung diseases, and there is good evidence relating an increased risk of symptoms of these diseases with increasing concentration of Sulphur dioxide, ozone and other pollutants. Biohazards generally fall into two broad categories: those which produce adverse health effects through infection (microorganisms, viruses or toxins) and those which produce adverse effects in non-infective (allergic) ways.

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For a 4-pole, 2-layer, d.c, lap-winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer, the number of commutator bars is​

Answers

The number of commutator bars for a 4-pole, 2-layer, DC lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer exists 20

What is lap winding in dc machine?

Lap Winding is one kind of winding with two layers, and it is used in electric machines. Every coil in the engine is allied in series with the one nearby coil to it. The applications of lap winding mainly contain low voltage as well as high current devices.

What are the benefits of lap winding?

Advantages of Lap Winding

The advantages of lap windings contain: This winding is necessarily needed for large current applications because it has more parallel paths. It is suited for low voltage and high current generators.

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Which of the following allowed third party mechanical devices to be attached directly on AT&T telephone sets?
a. The Kingsbury Agreement
b. Telecommunications Act of 1996
c. The Modified Final Judgment (MFJ)
d. Hush-a-Phone decision

Answers

The correct option is a. The Kingsbury Agreement.

The Kingsbury Agreement allowed third party mechanical devices to be attached directly on AT&T telephone sets. The Kingsbury Agreement is an agreement between the Bell System and the United States Department of Justice, under which the Bell System agreed to divest itself of its local exchange service operating companies. It was signed in 1982. AT&T had agreed to divest itself of its local exchange service operating companies as part of the settlement of an antitrust lawsuit against the company.The agreement also allowed for the manufacture of third-party devices that could be attached to AT&T telephone sets, providing a new market for companies that had previously been shut out of the telecommunications industry. This was a significant change, as AT&T had previously required customers to lease telephones from the company rather than purchase them outright. The Kingsbury Agreement opened up the market for telephone equipment and allowed for increased competition in the industry. In conclusion, the correct option is a. The Kingsbury Agreement.

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Which of the following is an example of a passive fall protection system

Answers

Answer:

Guardrail

netting and

safety gates

The one that is an example of passive fall protection system are Safety Nets, and Guardrails. The correct options are A and C.

What is passive fall protection system?

Any safety precautions that are essentially stationary, fixed, or unchanging are included in a passive fall protection system.

After installation, the system is completely automated, and no personal safety equipment is required.

Passive systems are buildings that make the best use of solar heat or light by their siting, design, or construction materials.

Active systems feature components that transform solar energy into a more useful form, such electricity or hot water.

Guardrails and Safety Nets are two examples of passive fall protection systems.

Thus, it can be concluded that the correct options are A and C.

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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:

Which of the following is an example of a passive fall protection system

A. Safety Nets

B. Personal Fall Arrest Systems

C. Guardrails

D. Travel Restraint Systems

a clamp-on ammeter is designed to measure only alternating current.
T/F

Answers

It is FALSE to steate that a clamp-on ammeter, also known as a clamp meter or current clamp, is designed to measure both alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC).

How is this so?

It utilizes a current transformer or hall effect sensor to measure the magnetic field produced by the current flowing through a conductor.

This makes   it capable of measuring bothAC and DC current without the need for breaking the circuit.

Note that DC standsfor Direct Current, which is an electric current that flows in one direction with   a constant polarity.

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1. A square RC short member subject to pure compression has a cross-section as given below. (5+5+10 points)
b= 10 in. h = 10 in.
As= 4#6 n = Es/Ec = 8

steel compressive stress, fs = 8,000 psi
a) What is the strain in the steel bars (5 points)
b) What is the compressive stress in the concrete (5 points)
c) Determine the centered axial load, P, that produces these stresses (10 points)

Answers

a) The strain in the steel bars is 0.0016.

b) The compressive stress in the concrete is 800 psi.

c) The centered axial load, P, that produces these stresses is 240 kips.

a) The strain in the steel bars can be calculated using the formula: strain = fs / Es, where fs is the steel compressive stress and Es is the modulus of elasticity of steel. Plugging in the given values, the strain in the steel bars is 8,000 psi / (8 x 10^6 psi) = 0.0016.

b) The compressive stress in the concrete can be determined using the formula: fs = n x fc, where fs is the steel compressive stress, n is the modular ratio (n = Es / Ec), and fc is the compressive stress in the concrete. Rearranging the equation, we have fc = fs / n. Plugging in the given values, the compressive stress in the concrete is 8,000 psi / 8 = 800 psi.

c) The centered axial load, P, can be calculated using the formula: P = As x fs + Ac x fc, where As is the area of the steel bars, Ac is the area of the concrete, fs is the steel compressive stress, and fc is the compressive stress in the concrete. Plugging in the given values and the dimensions of the cross-section, the centered axial load is P = (4 x 0.11 in^2 x 8,000 psi) + (10 in x 10 in x 800 psi) = 240 kips.

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In Assembly Language Please Write a program called "NumAverage" that inputs numbers (non-zero positive integers) from a user, averages those numbers, and then displays the result.The program should keep asking for new numbers until the user enters "q" (for quit) or any other character. At that time, the program should average all the numbers entered and display the result. You will need a counter to keep track of the how many numbers are entered. Make sure you display adequate instructions on how the program works. Also display an informative output.
Example: Enter a number: 32
Enter a number: 18
Enter a number: 10
Enter a number: q
The average of your numbers is: 20
================================
For ex write in java language
int sum =0 ; int i =0;
while (input != 'q'){
print(" Enter a number :");
input=next.Int();
sum =input + sum;
i++;}
print ("average number" + ( sum /i) );

Answers

To write a program called "NumAverage" that inputs numbers (non-zero positive integers) from a user, averages those numbers, and then displays the result, check the code given below.

What is program?

A specific type of data made up of characters, numbers, and strings must be processed by programmers in order for the results to be useful, so programming languages are created and designed to assist in this process. The term "programme" refers to a collection of instructions that process data.

.MODEL SMALL

.DATA

       VAL1    DB      ?

       NL1     DB      0AH,0DH,'ENTER HOW MANY NO U WANT:','$'

       NL2     DB      0AH,0DH,'ENTER NO:','$'

       cmp    0AH,Q

       jmp

       NL3     DB      0AH,0DH,'AVEARGE:','$'

.CODE

MAIN    PROC

       MOV AX,(atsymbol)DATA

       MOV DS,AX

       LEA DX,NL1

       MOV AH,09H

       INT 21H

       MOV AH,01H

       INT 21H

       SUB AL,30H

       MOV CL,AL

       MOV BL,AL

       MOV AL,00

       MOV VAL1,AL

LBL1:

       LEA DX,NL2

       MOV AH,09H

       INT 21H

       MOV AH,01H

       INT 21H

       SUB AL,30H

       ADD AL,VAL1

       MOV VAL1,AL

       LOOP LBL1

LBL2:

       LEA DX,NL3

       MOV AH,09H

       INT 21H

       MOV AX,00

       MOV AL,VAL1

       DIV BL

       ADD AX,3030H

       MOV DX,AX

       MOV AH,02H

       INT 21H

       MOV AH,4CH

       INT 21H

MAIN    ENDP

       END     MAIN

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